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docker41 [41]
2 years ago
13

The one-to-one functions g and h are defined as follows.

Mathematics
1 answer:
ExtremeBDS [4]2 years ago
3 0

The value of g⁻¹(5) = 0, h⁻¹(x) = (x+10)/3, and the value of h(h⁻¹(5)) = 5 if  g = {(-4, 1), (0, 5), (5, -3), (8, -8)} and h(x) = 3x - 10

<h3>What is a function?</h3>

It is defined as a special type of relationship, and they have a predefined domain and range according to the function every value in the domain is related to exactly one value in the range.

We have:

g = {(-4, 1), (0, 5), (5, -3), (8, -8)}

As we know,

If f(x) has an ordered pair (x, y) then its inverse of a function has (y, x).

g⁻¹ = {(1, -4), (5, 0), (-3, 5), (-8, 8)}

g⁻¹(5) = 0

h(x) = 3x - 10

h⁻¹(x) = (x+10)/3

h⁻¹(5) = 15/3 = 5

h(h⁻¹(5)) = 3(5) - 10

h(h⁻¹(5)) = 5

Thus, the value of g⁻¹(5) = 0, h⁻¹(x) = (x+10)/3, and the value of h(h⁻¹(5)) = 5 if  g = {(-4, 1), (0, 5), (5, -3), (8, -8)} and h(x) = 3x - 10

Learn more about the function here:

brainly.com/question/5245372

#SPJ1

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the pie factory sells an apple pie with a diameter of 16 in. for $10.99. What's the approximate cost per square inch of surface
AURORKA [14]
I'm going to assume the crust covered by the dosenot matter because the total surface area cannot be found without the depth of the pie.

So the surface are is the area of the top of the pie, the top of the pie is circular and is equal to 2\pir²

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With the raduis the area can be found
A= 2\pir²
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A=2(64)\pi
A=128\pi

If the pie cost 10.99, the cost per inch can be found by dividing the area by cost

cost/inch =128 \pi/10.99
cost/inch =11.64\pi
               = 11.64(3.14)
               = 36.57

The pie costs 36 cents per square inch
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3 years ago
A line passes through ( - 1, 1) and (3,9).
Ivan

Answer:

y=2x+3

Step-by-step explanation:

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Hope this helps...

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Step-by-step explanation:

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