Answer:
5/32
Step-by-step explanation:
If a coin if flipped five times with four heads, then it has exactly one tail. The number of way to arrange four heads and one tail are as follows:
T H H H H
H T H H H
H H T H H
H H H T H
H H H H T
Essentially, there are five way because there are five "positions" where the tail could be.
Then, you need to find the total amount of possibilities for flipping a coin five times. Every time you flip it, there are two possibilities- heads and tails. Therefore, for five flips, the total amount of possibilities is
2x2x2x2x2 = 32
You know that
probability= # of desired outcome
----------------------------------
# of total outcomes
So the probablity is 5/32.
They are inverses.
The easiest way to solve this is to take the g(x) equation and switch the g(x) with the x. Then solve for your new g(x). Since it looks just like f(x) after doing that, it is an inverse.
Answer: 53.13
Explanation of answer: since theta is the unknown, then you must use the inverse of sin. (Which is sin with -1 subscript) I used a calculator and used inverse of sin and put 4/5 in parenthesis
If you flip a coin one time, the probability to get a Head is
p = 1/2
The probability of not getting a head in a single toss is :
q = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2
Thus there is only one unique situation to get the same number of heads and tails : in 10 toss you need to get exactly five heads, it will means that the rest is the tails.
Now using Binomial theorem of probability, the probability of getting exactly x = 5 heads in a total of n = 10 tosses is :
P(X = 5) =
≈ 0.246
So the probability of that is 24,6 %
Good Luck
18 / 44 = 9 / 22
There are 44 nuts in the bag, and 18 of them are peanuts. If you simplify the fraction, you get 9/22 chance of getting a peanut.