34,600.
7 is higher than 4, so it rounds up.
The answer is d hope that helps
You could find the difference on the internet if not found tell me and I would explain for you
You can either use the inverse function theorem or compute the general derivative using implicit differentiation. The first method is slightly faster.
The IFT goes like this: if f(x) is invertible and f(a) = b, then finv(b) = a (where "finv" means "inverse of f").
By definition of inverse functions, we have
f(finv(x)) = finv(f(x)) = x
Differentiating both sides of the second equality with respect to x using the chain rule gives
finv'(f(x)) * f'(x) = 1
When x = a, we get
finv'(b) * f'(a) = 1
or
finv'(b) = 1/f'(a)
Now let f(x) = sin(x), which is invertible over the interval -π/2 ≤ x ≤ π/2. In the interval, we have sin(x) = √3/2 when x = π/3. We also have f'(x) = cos(x).
So we take a = π/3 and b = √3/2. Then
arcsin'(√3/2) = 1/cos(π/3) = 1/(1/2) = 2
