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IceJOKER [234]
2 years ago
5

At a price of $2,000 per unit, the demand for Rancho 60 mountain bikes from Peyton Bike's Inc. is 300 units, which is the number

of bikes the company manufactures every year. This is Peyton Bike's maximum output. If the marketing managers at Peyton Bike's Inc. decide to sell each bike at a price lower than $2,000 per unit, _____. a. the demand for and the supply of the bikes will attain equilibrium b. a shortage of bikes will be created c. an inelastic demand for the bikes will be created d. the number of bikes produced will increase drastically
Business
1 answer:
MaRussiya [10]2 years ago
4 0

<em>If the marketing managers at Peyton Bike's Inc. decide to sell each bike at a price lower than $2,000 per unit</em><em>, a shortage of bikes will be created.</em>

<h3>Why are bikes in short supply?</h3>

As a result, additional problems like plant shutdowns and disruptions as well as the unheard-of increase in bike orders during the peak of the coronavirus pandemic have added to the supply chain difficulties. The sector has never before experienced such a massive increase in demand as it has over the past two years.

learn more about<em> </em>shortage of bikes here <u>brainly.com/question/13000057</u>

#SPJ4

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5. Successive US administrations have accused the Chinese government of manipulating their currency (Yuan) to
k0ka [10]

A weaker Yuan against the US dollar makes Chinese exports cheaper, increases demand, and makes US exports to China more expensive, thereby reducing the demand for US exports.

<h3>What is international trade?</h3>

International trade is the global exchange of goods and services among countries of the world, involving the use of the foreign exchange.

The three types of international trade are:

  • Export Trade
  • Import Trade
  • Entrepot Trade.

Thus, by manipulating the Yuan, the Chinese government ensures that it has a more competitive advantage over the United States in international trade.

Learn more about Chinese Yuan Manipulation at brainly.com/question/27858412

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
An important goal of a responsibility accounting framework is to help ensure which of the following?
MariettaO [177]
<h2>segment and company financial goals are congruent.</h2>

Explanation:

I think the options are missed and hence given below for your reference:

a) decision-making is made by the top executives.

b) investments made by each segment are minimized.

c) identification of operating segments that should be closed.

d) segment and company financial goals are congruent.

Let us understand the meaning:

Congruent: It means two or more things coincides when superimposed.

Financial goals: The target which needs to be achieved in the current financial year.

Segments: Segment speaks about the location, product or service provided by the company.

Financial goals are necessary so that it would be easy to organize and work towards the specific goal.

For the business goal to be achieved, every organization should frame financial targets or goals.

So the important goal is to achieve segment and company financial goals and they become congruent when achieved.

3 0
4 years ago
Advance Payments for Goods The Petaluma Daily Times Corporation (CDT) publishes a daily newspaper. A 52-week subscription sells
kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

The Journal entries are as follows:

(i) On January 1,

Cash  A/c    Dr. 26,000

To Unearned subscription revenue  26,000

(To record the receipt of the subscriptions)

(ii) On March 25,

Unearned subscription revenue A/c   Dr. $500

To subscription revenue                                      $500

(To record the one week of earned revenue)

Working notes:

subscription revenue for 1 week = 260 × 100 × (1 ÷ 52 )

                                                       = $500

7 0
3 years ago
Scenario 24-2 The price tag on a golf ball in 1975 read $0.20, and the price tag on a golf ball in 2005 read $2.00. The CPI in 1
zlopas [31]

Answer:

The price of the 1975 golf ball in 2005 is $0.55

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate the price of a golf ball in the year 2005 which was bought in the year 1975.

Before we begin to answer, we have been seeing CPI, what could this mean?

The term CPI stands for consumer price index. It refers simply to the change in price of a particular goods or services over a specific period of time.

Now, we mathematically propose a solution to the problem as follows;

We identify the following;

CPI in 1975 = 52.3

CPI in 2005 = 191.3

We now calculate the CPI change between the years. This can be done by dividing the CPI in the year 1975 by the CPI in the year 2005. Mathematically;

CPI change between years = CPI IN 1975/ CPI in 2005

= 52.3/191.3

= 0.273

Now, we proceed to calculate the price of the 1975 ball in 2005.

Mathematically;

A 1975 golf ball’s cost in 2005 = CPI change * price of golf ball in 2005

= 0.273 * 2

= $0.55

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Great Lakes Packing has two bond issues outstanding. The first issue has a coupon rate of 3.54 percent, a par value of $1,000 pe
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

3.20%

Explanation:

The firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt can be determined by first of all determining the before-tax cost of each debt.

Using a financial calculator, the before-tax costs of debt are ascertained as follows:

Bond 1:

N=8(number of semiannual coupons in 4 years)

PMT=17.70  (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*3.54%/2=$17.70)

PV=-1030(current price=$1000*103%=$1030)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=1.37%(the semannual yield, annual yield=1.37%*2=2.74%)

after-tax cost of first debt=2.74%*(1-39%)=1.67%

Bond 2:

N=46(number of semiannual coupons in 23  years)

PMT=30.50 (semiannual coupon=face value*coupon rate/2=$1,000*6.10%/2=$30.50)

PV=-950(current price=$1000*95%=$950)

FV=1000(the face value is $1000)

CPT

I/Y=3.26%%(the semannual yield, annual yield=3.26%%*2=6.52%)

after-tax cost of second debt=6.52%*(1-39%)=3.98%

market value of first debt=$3.8 million*103%=$3,914,000

market value of second debt=$8.1 million*95%=$7,695,000

total market value of debts=$3,914,000+$7,695,000=$11,609,000

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=(1.67%*$3,914,000/$11,609,000)+(3.98%*$7,695,000/$11,609,000)

firm's weighted average aftertax cost of debt=3.20%

5 0
3 years ago
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