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2 years ago

COMPLETE THE FOLLOWING EQUATION USING APPROPRIATE SIGN ( +,-,x,÷) IN THE BOXES GIVEN:

Mathematics

1 answer:

VARVARA [1.3K]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

) +, -

e) x, ÷

g) ÷

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the following exponential equation <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=3%20%7B%7D%5E%7B2x%20%7D%20%20-%209%20%3D%200" id

77julia77 [94]

Answer:

x = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given exponential equation:

$3^{2x}-9=0$

Add 9 to both sides of the equation:

$\implies 3^{2x}-9+9=0+9$

$\implies 3^{2x}=9$

$\textsf{Apply exponent rule} \quad a^{bc}=(a^b)^c:$

$\implies \left(3^2\right)^{x}=9$

$\implies9^{x}=9$

$\textsf{Apply exponent rule} \quad a=a^1:$

$\implies9^{x}=9^1$

$\textsf{Apply exponent rule} \quad a^{f(x)}=a^{g(x)} \implies f(x)=g(x):$

$\implies x=1$

8 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

Only need help on number 8. Thanks in advance. Must show work. If you do I will give you brainliest. :)

marishachu [46]

Answer:

Necklace cost $144 and bracelet cost $48

Step-by-step explanation:

call x is the price of necklace, y is the price of bracelet

because necklace cost 3 time as much as the bracelet

=> 3x = y

A necklace and a bracelet cost $192

=> x + y = 192

=>set of equations

3x = y and x+y = 192

x= 3y and 3y + y = 192

=> y = 48 and x = 3 . 48 = 144

6 0

3 years ago

(Due in 20 minutes!)

sergey [27]

Answer:

PLAN A

$840-$180=$660

In 1 week = $60

how many weeks = $660

$660 × 1 week

$60

==== it will take 11weeks..

PLAN B.

In 1 week = $70

how many weeks= $840

$840 × 1 week

$70

====It will take 12weeks

PLAN A IS THE CORRECT ANSWER IT ONLY TAKES 11 WEEKS

6 0

3 years ago

What is 20% as fraction

Anna11 [10]

Answer:

1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there !!!!!!!! 

20% = $\frac{20}{100}$

=0.2

= $\frac{0.2}{1} * \frac{10}{10}$

= $\frac{2}{10}$

= $\frac{1}{5}$

hope it helped !!!!!!!!

5 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please helpppp!!! Also, please outlne the steps you've used.

lions [1.4K]

Answer:

The correct answer is:

Ken will have run 3 laps and Hamid will have run 4.

Explanation:

To find this, we first find the number of seconds that will have passed when they meet again. We use the LCM, or least common multiple, for this. First we find the prime factorization of each number:

80 = 10(8)

10 = 5(2)

8 = 2(4)

4 = 2(2)

80 = 2(2)(2)(5)(2)

60 = 10(6)

10 = 5(2)

6 = 2(3)

60 = 2(2)(3)(5)

For the LCM, we multiply the common factors by the uncommon. Between the two numbers, the common factors are 2, 2 and 5. This makes the uncommon 2, 2, and 3, and makes our LCM

2(2)(5)(2)(2)(3) = 240

This means every 240 seconds they will both be at the start line.

Since Ken completes a lap in 80 seconds, he completes 240/80 = 3 laps in 240 seconds.

Since Hamid completes a lap in 60 seconds, he completes 240/60 = 4 laps in 240 seconds.

5 0

3 years ago