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ra1l [238]
2 years ago
13

When the effective-interest method of amortization is used for a bond premium, the amount of interest expense for an interest pe

riod is calculated multiplying the:.
Business
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]2 years ago
5 0

The amount of interest expense for an interesting period is calculated by multiplying the carrying value of the bonds at the beginning of the period by the effective interest rate.

Amortization is an accounting approach used to periodically decrease the ebook value of a loan or an intangible asset over a fixed time frame. Concerning a mortgage, amortization focuses on spreading out mortgage bills through the years. When applied to an asset, amortization is similar to depreciation.

Amortized price is an accounting approach in which all economic properties need to be suggested on a stability sheet at their amortized fee that is identical to their acquisition general minus their essential payments and any reductions or charges minus any impairment losses and change variations.

Input the corresponding values in cells B1 thru B3. In cellular B4, input the components "=-PMT(B2/1200, B3*12, B1)" to have Excel routinely calculate the monthly charge. As an example, in case you had a $25,000 mortgage at 6.5 percent annual hobby for 10 years, the month-to-month fee could be $283.87.

Learn more about the method of amortization here brainly.com/question/10561878

#SPJ4

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Two firms compete in a market to sell a homogeneous product with inverse demand function P = 600 – 3Q. Each firm produces at a c
podryga [215]

Answer:

Explanation:

We need to find the function of firm 1 and firm 2 which we have as

PQ1/Q1= 300

600Q1– 3Q21 – 3Q1Q2/ = 300

300 – 6Q1 – 3Q2= 300

Q1 = 1/6(600 -300 – 3Q2)

Q1 = 50 – 1/2Q2 Reaction function for firm 1

Q2 = 50 – 1/2Q1 Reaction function for firm 2

Cournot which we have as;

Q2 = = 1/6(600 -300 – 3Q1)

Q2 = 50 – 1/2Q1

Q2 = 50 – ½(50 – 1/2Q1)

Q2 = 50 – 25 + 1/4Q1

Q1 = 100/3 = 33.33 Output

Q2= 100/3 = 33.33 Output

Equilibrium market price which is

P = 600 – 3(Q2+ Q2)600 – 3(100/3 + 100/3)= 400

Profits for firm 1

Π1 = TR1– C1= PQ1 – C1=400 * 100/3 – 300 * 100/3= 10000/3 = $3,333.33 For firm 1

Profits for firm 2

Π2 = TR2– C2= PQ2 – C2=400 * 100/3 – 300 * 100/3= 10000/3 = $3,333.33 For firm 2

Stackelberg is given as ;

QL= (600 – 300)/2*3 = 50 Firm 1 output is QL = 50

QF= (600 – 300)/4*3 = 25 Firm 2 output is QF =25 P = 600 – 3*75 = 375

Π1 = (375-300) * 50 = 3750Profit for firm 1

Π2 = 75*25 = 1875 Profit for firm 2

Bertrand is given as ;

Under this competition, price is the same to marginal cost and profits are zero

600 – 3Q = 300

Q = 100 Output = 100

P = Zero

Collusive Behavior is given as;

MR=MC600 - 6Q = 300

300 = 6QQ = 50 Output

P = 600 – 3*50 = 450

Π = (450 – 300) * 50 = 7,500profit

3 0
3 years ago
The ________ is an incomplete picture because a single number cannot fully reflect the sources of the underlying differences in
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

Income inequality ratio

Explanation:

The income inequality ratio is an incomplete picture because a single number cannot fully reflect the sources of the underlying differences in income.

Income inequality refers to the uneven distribution of income among the population of a particular place. It is the difference in the allocation of income in a particular country.

Income inequality occurs across different segments of the population such as gender(male and female), ethnic group, occupation, geographical location etc.

The Gini index is widely used to compare disparities in income.

6 0
3 years ago
Who is most likely to draw the highest salary?
sattari [20]

Answer:

the answer would be c

Explanation:

i think it would be c because an associates degree is higher than a graduates and a diploma.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
"Moyas Corporation sells a single product for $10 per unit. Last year, the company's sales revenue was $280,000 and its net oper
Harlamova29_29 [7]

Answer:

23,750 units

Explanation:

The computation of the break even point in unit sales is shown below

Break even point = (Fixed expenses) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)

where,  

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit  

The variable expense per unit is

= (Sale revenue - fixed expenses - net operating income) ÷ (Number of sales units)

= ($280,000 - $17,000 - $95,000) ÷ ($280,000 ÷ 10 per unit)

= ($280,000 - $17,000 - $95,000) ÷ (28,000 units)

= $6 per uni

And, the fixed expenses is $95,000

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to  

= ($95,000) ÷ ($10 - $6)  

= 23,750 units

4 0
3 years ago
Damon convinced his aunt to lend him 2000 to purchase a plasma digital tv she has agreed to charge only 6 percnt simple interest
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

$120

Explanation:

In this question, we simply have to apply the simple interest formula which is shown below:

= Principal amount × rate of interest × time period

= $2,000 × 6% × 1 year

= $120

Simply we multiplied the principal amount with the interest rate and the time period so that the accurate amount can come.

So, $120 interest is paid for the year

7 0
3 years ago
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