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Goryan [66]
3 years ago
10

The 50th term of a sequence is 102 with a difference of 2. Find the first term.

Mathematics
1 answer:
stich3 [128]3 years ago
3 0
Look here https://www.varsitytutors.com/algebra_1-help/how-to-find-the-nth-term-of-an-arithmetic-sequence
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Please answer There is a bag filled with 3 blue and 5 red marbles. A marble is taken at random from the bag, the colour is noted
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Answer:

\frac{15}{28}  is the required probability.

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number of Marbles = Blue + Red = 3 + 5 = 8

Probability of getting blue = \frac{3}{8}

Probability of not getting a blue =\frac{5}{8}

To get exactly one blue in two draws, we either get a blue, not blue, or a not blue, blue.

<u>First Draw Blue, Second Draw Not Blue:</u>

1st Draw: P(Blue) = \frac{3}{8}

2nd Draw: P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{5}{7}  (since we did not replace the first marble)

To get the probability of the event, since each draw is independent, we multiply both probabilities.

P(Event)=\frac{3}{8}\cdot \frac{5}{7}=\frac{15}{56}

<u>First Draw Not Blue, Second Draw Not Blue:</u>

1st Draw: P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{5}{8}

2nd Draw: P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{3}{7}  (since we did not replace the first marble)

To get the probability of the event, since each draw is independent, we multiply both probabilities.

P(Event)=\frac{5}{8}\cdot \frac{3}{7}=\frac{15}{56}

To get the probability of exactly one blue, we add both of the events:

\frac{15}{56}+\frac{15}{56}=\frac{15}{28}

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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It's a bit tedious, but it's just a bunch of factoring and manipulation.

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