The options of the given are:
A. A large diameter myelinated fiber
B. A small diameter myelinated fiber
C. A large unmyelinated fiber
D. A small unmyelinated fiber
E. A small fiber with multiple Schwann cells
Answer: Option A, A large diameter myelinated fiber.
Explanation:
The conduction of the nerve impulse would be greatest in the myelinated fiber because the main function of the myelin sheath is to increase the speed of the impulse at which the electrical signals propagate.
In case of the unmyelinated sheath the nerve impulse travels slowly as the conduction waves but in case of the large diameter myelinated sheath the signals travel via saltatory conduction( hop)
In this type of propagation the signals are transferred from the node of Ranvier in one neuron to next node which increases the overall velocity of the action potentials.
10.7 rad/s is the final angular velocity of the stick.
Given:
Mass of the stick = 4.42 kg
Length of the stick = 1.23m
Force of impulse (I) = 12.8 N s
The linear velocity of the stick, 


Therefore, the final linear velocity of the stick is 2.89 m/s
∴



Therefore, 10.7 rad/s is the final angular velocity of the stick.
Learn more about linear velocity here:
brainly.com/question/15154527
#SPJ4
To remove a splinter from the skin.
Answer:
27 mph
Explanation:
9:45 to 11:45 = 2 hours
odometer says you traveled 54 miles in 2 hours or 27 mph
Answer:
v1 = v2
Explanation:
Given:
- The missing figure is (attached).
- The Magnetic Field B1 > B2
Find:
How does the speed v1 of the electron in region 1 compare with the speed v2 in region 2?
Solution:
- From Lorentz Law we know that the Force that acts on the charge particle is the cross product of Magnetic Field Vector ( B1 or B2 ) and the velocity vector (v1 or v1).
- From the attached figure related to this problem we see that the electron velocity or direction of motion is always parallel to the magnetic field B1&B2.
- The law of cross product for parallel vector is 0. Hence, the Lorentz force acting on the electron is also zero.
- Zero Force means no work is done on the particle by the magnetic field, thus, the change in kinetic energy also zero for conservation of energy to hold.
- The initial and final kinetic energies of the electron is same. Hence, we can conclude that v1 = v2.