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Nadya [2.5K]
2 years ago
8

Why would the difference between income computed under full costing and income computed under variable costing be relatively sma

ll if a company used a jit inventory management system?
Business
1 answer:
r-ruslan [8.4K]2 years ago
6 0

First of all, we have to understand what is Full costing, Variable Costing, and JIT Inventory Management System.

Full Costing

Full costing also know as absorption costing. It allocate all cost to the specific product like fixed cost, variable cost etc.

Absorption costing consider all kind of cost whereas variable costing will only consider cost in variable in nature.

Variable Costing

Variable cost is a method were we only account for those cost that are varied over production output. It will not be a good tacker of profitability but it will help in decision making.

Inventory Management System

JIT stands for Just in Time Inventory. Where basic idea is to buy inventory whenever required, this system doesn't allow holding inventory.

Now coming to the question of why the difference is small when we are operating under JIT Inventory management System is as follows:-

1. Working capital - It is designed to be exceedingly low, so the investment in working capital is very less and will reduce inventory holding cost.

2. Obsolete inventory - Since inventory levels are so low, there is little risk of having much obsolete inventory which in turn will result in less loss.

3. Process time. A thoroughly implemented JIT system should shorten the amount of time required to manufacture products, which may decrease the quoted lead times given to customers placing orders. So the fixed cost will not be incurred on rent etc because of low/ less holding of inventory.

Because of the above factor difference is too small.

Learn more about Variable Costing here: brainly.com/question/6337340

#SPJ4

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ABO purchased a truck at the beginning of 2018 for $140,000. They sold the truck at the end of 2019 for $95,000. If the company
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

A. Debit Loss $5,000.

5 0
3 years ago
Ruth Richter gives a nonprofit entity $25,000 in cash. She tells the entity that it may use the gift for a particular research p
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is 'Deferred Revenue'.

Explanation:

The Deferred Revenue account relates to the account in which a specific amount of payment is received in advance by the organization for the goods that are not delivered or, for the services which have not been implemented yet. They are shown on the balance sheet of the organization on the liability side.  

Thus, according to the scenario given, the Deferred revenue account will be credited, when the gift is received, but neither of the conditions is met.

6 0
3 years ago
The Campbell Company is considering adding a robotic paint sprayer to its production line. The sprayer's base price is $1,050,00
Keith_Richards [23]

The Year 0 net cash flow is $1,092,000.

<h3>What is zero year net cash flow?</h3>

a real zero cash flow property, sometimes known as "zero," is a highly leveraged asset that is set up so that the net operating income (NOI), which serves as the basis for distribution to equity investors, equals the loan payment.

Calculation for the Year 0 net cash flow:

The sprayer's base price of robotic paint sprayer is $1,050,000.

The installation of robotic paint sprayer is $24,000.

Book value of the robotic paint sprayer = base price + installation

                                                                = $1,050,000 + $24,000

                                                                = $1,074,000

Year 0 net cash flow = Book value +  Net working capital

                                  = $1,074,000 +  $18,000

                                  = $1,092,000

Therefore, the year 0 net cash flow is $1,092,000.

To know more about estimation of net operating income (NOI), here

brainly.com/question/24167755

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8 0
2 years ago
A company bought machinery on January 1, 2016, for $200,000. On January 1, 2018, the machinery had a book value of $100,000. It
eduard

Answer:

The impairment loss that should be recorded is:

= $40,000.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Cost of machinery on January 1, 2016 = $200,000

Book value of machinery on January 1, 2018 = $100,000

Estimated future cash flows from the machinery = $70,000

Estimated fair value of the machinery = $60,000

Impairment loss to be recorded = Book value Minus Fair Market Value

= $40,000 ($100,000 - $60,000)

b) The impairment loss is calculated as the difference between the asset's carrying cost of $100,000 and the lower market value of $60,000 instead of $70,000.

4 0
3 years ago
Louis purchased $5,000 worth of stock three years ago and sold it today for $7,000. He received no dividends from this investmen
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

9.33%

Explanation:

Calculation to determine his annualized real rate of return on this investment

Annualized real rate of return=[($7,000-$5,000/ ($5000*3) *100] -4%

Annualized real rate of return=13.33%-4%

Annualized real rate of return = 9.33%

Therefore his annualized real rate of return on this investment will be 9.33%

5 0
3 years ago
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