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Lyrx [107]
2 years ago
9

1. If two objects collide and one is initially at rest, is it possible for both to be at rest after the collision? Is it possibl

e for one to be at rest after the collision? Explain.​
Physics
1 answer:
NeX [460]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(a)If two objects collide and one is initially at rest, is it possible for both to be at rest after the collision?

No. Because if you have initial momentum P⃗ ≠0 , if both of the objects were at rest after the collision the total momentum of the system would be P⃗ =0 , which violates conservation of momentum

(b)Is it possible for only one to be at rest after the collision?

Yes, that is perfectly possible. It characteristically, happens when both objects are of the same mass. When two objects of the same mass collide and Kinetic energy is conserved (Perfectly Elastic collision) then the two objects interchange velocities.

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Loops in a motor rotate because?​
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

Motors are the most common application of magnetic force on current-carrying wires. Motors have loops of wire in a magnetic field. When current is passed through the loops, the magnetic field exerts torque on the loops, which rotates a shaft. Electrical energy is converted to mechanical work in the process

Explanation:

hope that helps!

5 0
3 years ago
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leonid [27]

Answer

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Explanation:

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4 0
2 years ago
Why do opposite charges attract and like charges repel?
baherus [9]
They attract if they are oppositely charged and they repel if they have the same charges.
4 0
3 years ago
Gravitational pull is determined by
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

The gravitational pull is determined by the mass and distance.

Explanation:

According to Newton's law of universal gravitation

F = G\frac{m1.m2}{r^{2} }

where F is the gravitational pull, G is gravitational constant, m₁ and m₂ are masses of bodies and r is the distance between them.

It can be seen from the above equation that F is directly proportional to the product of the masses and inversely proportional to the square of distance between them.

                      F ∝ m₁m₂

                      F ∝ 1/r²

6 0
4 years ago
Contrary to popular belief, America is not a Democracy, it's a Chucktatorship. In order for Chuck to rule America, he must fly a
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

The plane's acceleration is 33.33 m/s²

Explanation:

The following equation relates velocity, v and acceleration of a moving body;

v = u + a·t

Where:

v = The final velocity of the body after time, t = 180 km/min

u = The initial velocity of the body just before the counting of the time = 0 m/s

a = The acceleration of the body during time, t = Required

t = The time of the motion = 1.5 minutes = 1.5×60 seconds = 90 s

v = 180 km/min = 180 km/min × 1000 m/km × 1/60 min/s = 3000 m/s

∴ 3000 m/s = 0 m/s + a × 90

a = \frac{3000 - 0 }{90}  = \frac{100}{3} = 33\tfrac{1}{3} \ m/s^2

Therefore, the plane's acceleration = 33.33 m/s².

5 0
4 years ago
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