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mestny [16]
2 years ago
15

For investors, changes made to the tax code by the government are known as a form of:______.

Business
1 answer:
uysha [10]2 years ago
8 0

For investors, changes made to the tax code by the government are known as a form legislative risk, which results from changes in law.

Legislative risk refers to the possibility that government legislation or regulations will significantly alter the business prospects of one or more companies. These changes may have a negative impact on the firm's investment holdings. The legislative risk may occur as a direct result of government action or by changing customer demand patterns. Investors rarely complain about preferential treatment and bailouts for specific industries, possibly because they all work with the secret hope of profiting from them.

What subsidies and tariffs can give an industry in terms of competitive advantages, regulation and taxation can take away from many others. They can send shockwaves around the world and destroy companies and entire industries with a single law, subsidy, or switch of the printing press. As a result, many investors consider legislative risk to be a major factor when evaluating stocks.

Learn more about legislative risk here:

brainly.com/question/9230331

#SPJ4

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Eliminating modification anomalies is a(n) ________ of normalization.Immersive Reader (2 Points) advantage disadvantage either a
noname [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is the first option: Advantage.

Explanation:

To begin with, the name of<em> "Normalization"</em> refers to the process of structuring a relational database alongside with normal forms with the purpose to reduce the amount of data redundancy and increase and improve the amount of data integrity. Most of the cases, the normalization concludes when the relational database meets the third normal form, that is considered to be free of insertion, updated and free of anomalies due to the fact that it deletes them. That is why that the elimination of modificating anomalies is an advantage of normalization.

4 0
3 years ago
2. (double-weight) A European put option is ""in the money."" The price of the underlying security now rises. a. What happens to
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

(A) premium on put option falls (B) premium on call option rises (C) premium on call changes more in absolute terms

Explanation:

An European put expires on a specific maturity date and can only be exercised on that date. A put option grants the right to sell an underlying security at an exercise price (X) on the exercise date, irrespective of the price the underlying security is trading at (S). On the other hand, a call option grants the right the buy an underlying security at the exercise price. The call or put option buyer will pay a Premium to the option writer to obtain this right. The amount charged as premium depends on how valuable the option is.

The value of a put option (P) = X-S (thus, the lower the price of the underlying security, the more valuable the put option is, vice versa)

The value of a call option (C) = S-X (thus, the higher the price of the underlying security, the more valuation the call option is, vice versa)

If the price of the underlying security rises,

(A) the put option will become less valuable, and its premium will fall

(B) the call option will become more valuable, and its premium will rise.

(C) the absolute size of the change in the call option will be larger than that of the put option. This is because the more the price of the underlying security increases, the more valuable the call option will become (as an example, if I have an option to buy an item at $10 and the current price of the item is $20, I can pay a positive value for that option. If the market price of the item increases to $50, I can pay even more for the option to buy the item at $10).

Whereas, the value of a put option will remain static once the price of the underlying rises beyond the exercise price. For instance, if I have the option to sell an item at $10 when the market price is $20, I just will not exercise the option. I will not change my decision if the market price rises to $50.

3 0
3 years ago
Unlike tangible goods,virtually all services are susceptible to inconsistency and variations in quality.Why is this so?A) Becaus
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

A) Because services depend on people for their delivery.

Explanation:

Given that the same or similar type of services are or can be carried out by various personnel, and the level of quality of the rendered services is dependent on the skills and professionalism of the person who rendered such services.

Hence, Unlike tangible goods, virtually all services are susceptible to inconsistency and variations in quality, because services depend on people for their delivery.

Therefore, the right answer is Option A. the

8 0
3 years ago
As the average hourly wage increases from $18 per hour to $20 per hour, the quantity of frozen dinners demanded decreases from 3
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

The income elasticity of demand for frozen dinners is negative when there is an increase of hourly wages. -51%

Explanation:

When the income elasticity is negative it means that the good is inferior so when the income is increased, the demand of the good decrease beacuse its demand change to a better quality good. For instance in this case a fresh meal.

income elasticity % = % change in quantity / % change in income

(((3350-3550)/3550)/((20-18)/18))*100

7 0
3 years ago
Consider the following financial statement information for the Hop Corporation:
EastWind [94]

Answer: Operating cycle = 84.70 days

Cash cycle = 41 days

Explanation:

Beginning inventory = $11,100

Ending Inventory = $12,100

Average inventory = ($11100 + $12100)/2 = 11600

Average Accounts receivable = (6,100 + 6,400)/2 = 6250

Average Accounts payable = (8,300 + 8,700)/2 = 8500

Day sales in inventory = Average inventory × 365 / Cost of goods sold

= 11600 × 365 / 71000 = 59.63 days

Average collection period = Average receivable × 365 / Credit sales

= 6250 × 365 /91000 = 25.07 days

Average payment period = 43.70 days

Therefore, operating cycle will be:

= Day sales in inventory + Average collection period

= 59.63 days + 25.07 days

= 84.70 days

Cash cycle = Operating cycle - Average payment period

= 84.70 - 43.70

= 41 days

7 0
3 years ago
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