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2 years ago

In a judicial foreclosure, how long does the borrower’s redemption period last if a deficiency judgment isn’t being sought?

Business

1 answer:

aniked [119]2 years ago

6 0

There is no redemption period if the lender is not pursuing a deficiency judgment.

A judicial foreclosure permits the lender to get a deficiency judgment against the borrower. However, the homeowner has the “proper of redemption,” which lets him or her shop for the home returned from the hit bidder on the auction for 12 months after the sale.

In a judicial foreclosures state, the lender has to report a lawsuit in a courtroom in an effort to foreclose. In a nonjudicial foreclosure nation, the lender can foreclose without going through the court docket system. either way, the very last step within the foreclosure process is a foreclosure sale.

Redemption is a period after your home has already been sold at a foreclosure sale when you may nonetheless reclaim your private home. You may want to pay the high-quality mortgage stability and all fees incurred during the foreclosures system.

Learn more about foreclosures here brainly.com/question/15182362

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Suppose the median household earned $9,242 in 1976 and $52,624 in 2016. During that time, also suppose the CPI rose from 45.6 to

Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

a) 469.40%

b) 18.15%

Explanation:

Total nominal growth rate = $(\frac{\textup{Earned income in 2016}}{\textup{Earned income in 1976}}-1)\times100\%$

thus,

Total nominal growth rate = $(\frac{\textup{52,624}}{\textup{9,242}}-1)\times100\%$

= 469.40%

b) Total real growth rate = $(\frac{\textup{Real earned income in 2016}}{\textup{Real earned income in 1976}}-1)\times100\%$

now,

Real earned income in 1976 = $\frac{\textup{Earned income in 1976}}{\textup{CPI in 1976}}$

= $\frac{\textup{9,242}}{\textup{45.6}\%}$

= $20,267.54

and,

Real earned income in 2016 = $\frac{\textup{Earned income in 2016}}{\textup{CPI in 2016}}$

= $\frac{\textup{52,624}}{\textup{219.75}\%}$

= $23,947.21

Therefore,

Total real growth rate = $(\frac{\textup{23,947.21 }}{\textup{20,267.54 }}-1)\times100\%$

= 18.15%

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3 years ago

Reasons for unequal distribution of income in developing countries

Colt1911 [192]

Answer:

the answer is because it would never be equal

Explanation:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

List one tip someone should follow before investing their money and explain.

jok3333 [9.3K]

You should invest your money to save for future projects or maybe you need it for a life emergency.

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3 years ago

What is the difference between a positive economic statement and a normative statement?

yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

e. A positive economic statement can be proved; a normative statement cannot.

Explanation:

A positive economic statement are objective statement that can be tested, amended or rejected by referring to available evidence.

this means in essence that a positive economic statement is prone to improvement when proven. it is not rigid

a normative statement is subjective that cannot be changed. it is rigid.

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3 years ago

Gershwin Wallcovering Inc. shipped the wrong shade of paint to a customer. The customer agreed to keep the paint upon being offe

ratelena [41]

Answer:

B) Sales discounts.

Explanation:

Sales Discount is a contra revenue account which is adjusted in the sales to calculate the net sales value.

As the following transaction is already been recorded at the time of sale

Dr. Account receivable xxxx

Cr. Sales xxxx

Sales account will not be debited to adjust the transaction. we will record this transaction in sales discount account which will ultimately adjusted.

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3 years ago