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erma4kov [3.2K]
2 years ago
5

On a map, a drawing of a

Mathematics
1 answer:
Elina [12.6K]2 years ago
7 0
So for this problem, inches and feet is something we know can fit into each other. 12 inches = 1 foot. To get the area in inches, multiplying 10x6 = 60 inches squared. When we divide that by 12 to get the amount of feet, the answer is 5 ft squared. 60/12 = 5 Then we would take the 5 and divide 540 by 5 to get the amount of square kilometers in each foot. 540/5 = 18 So in 1 foot, there are 18 square kilometers.

I hope this helped and that I got the correct answer for you as well :)
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Please help ill give brainliest
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

\sf A . \sf \frac{3}{-7}

\sf E. \sf -( \frac{-3}{-7} )

This above options makes the expression true.

  • The negatives above can be distributed up as well, which happened in A.
  • In E, when the negatives inside the bracket cancels out, the negative outside the brackets multiplies and makes the expression true.
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3 0
2 years ago
If 2 pounds of halibut cost $16, what is the unit rate for 1 pound?
Blizzard [7]

Answer:

8?

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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Suppose you deposit ​$600 in a bank account with a simple interest rate of 2.5​%. You want to keep your deposit in the bank long
aksik [14]

1 ) the formula used to calculate the simple interest is

I = Ci*n,  f his formula you obtain n , that is the time in years  n = I/ Ci, where c is the initial  capital,  i is the  earned interest  , and i is he rate of interest,

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3 years ago
Is it 7^12 not so sure ._.
Alekssandra [29.7K]
You are correct, it is.
6 0
3 years ago
If sin(x) = squareroot 2 over 2 what is cos(x) and tan(x)
Bumek [7]

Answer:

cos(x) = square root 2 over 2; tan(x) = 1

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\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2}

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\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} }

Therefore,

sin(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} }

The side opposite the reference angle measures 1, the hypotenuse measures square root 2.  That makes the reference angle a 45 degree angle.  From there we can determine that the side adjacent to the reference angle also has a measure of 1.  Therefore,

cos(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2} }=\frac{\sqrt{2} }{2} and

since tangent is side opposite (1) over side adjacent (1),

tan(x) = 1

7 0
3 years ago
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