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velikii [3]
2 years ago
13

The use of personal borrowing to change the overall amount of financial leverage to which an individual is exposed is called:___

_.
Business
1 answer:
Darya [45]2 years ago
5 0

When the person uses his personal belongings to change the overall amount of his financial leverage then it will be called Homemade Leverage.

Homemade Leverage was provided by The Modigliani-Miller Theory. This theory assumes an efficient market and it also assumes the absence of corporate taxes and the cost of bankruptcy. Homemade leverage gives the power for investors to borrow on the same terms as the company. So in this way, it can create the effects of corporate leverage.

The advantage of this method is that we can use it to incorporate the cash flows that come from risk-free assets without relying on the findings of the fund manager. This allows us to borrow and also lend at a specific risk-free rate of interest and to build a leveraged accurate return for the company.

Learn more about Homemade Leverage here:

brainly.com/question/27994836

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Marcos owns 1,500 shares of ABC stock which he purchased at $44 a share. The stock has been steadily decreasing in value and he
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

Market sell order for 1,500 shares

Explanation:

The type of order that Marcos should place is Market sell order for 1,500 shares because he already owns 1,500 shares of the ABC stock in which the ABC stock shares was purchased at $44 per share.

Since the stock has been decreasing in value in which he wants to cut his losses now because the stock price may continue to decrease, the best thing for him to do is to use the Market sell order for the 1,500 shares in order to cut the losses that may arise and to avoid losing all the Total amount of the shares bought which is $66,000 ( 1,500 shares ×$44).

3 0
3 years ago
Beranek Corp has $720,000 of assets, and it uses no debt--it is financed only with common equity. The new CFO wants to employ en
Andrej [43]

Answer:

Beranek Corp. should borrow $288,000 to achieve the target debt ratio.

Explanation:

40% of debt-to-asset ratio means that 40% of the assets should be Financed with debt and the remaining with equity. We have $720,000 worth of assets, simply multiply it with 40% and you will get the amount the needs to be borrowed.

If you have any queries about double entries of all this scenario, do leave a comment, I'll be pleased to help you.

Thank you!

4 0
3 years ago
assume you decide to start a business and you quit your job that was paying you $60,000 a year. you pay $36,000 to the landlord
marta [7]

The implicit cost is  $61,000.

<h3>What is the implicit cost?</h3>

Implicit cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.

When you decide to start the business, you forgo the amount you earned from your job and the interest you were earning.

$60,000 + 1,000  = $61,000

Please find attached the complete question. To learn more about implicit cost please check: brainly.com/question/25776323

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
If you receive to much change from a clerk, what would you do?
bazaltina [42]
Give it back or take it
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A(n) is a contractual arrangement in which one entity grants the purchaser the exclusive right to use the trade name, formulas,
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Franchise

Explanation:

Franchise is firstly permitted by government. Franchise gives authority to sell the product by the brand name which means one franchiser person gives rights to another people to use his trade name, the product rights and formulas and set the specific target in a given geographic area to another person for the benefit of the organization.

4 0
3 years ago
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