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Ksju [112]
1 year ago
8

the regulatory cycle provides an opportunity for self-regulation during the latency stage. group of answer choices true false

Business
1 answer:
Semmy [17]1 year ago
5 0

The regulatory cycle provides an opportunity for self-regulation during the latency stage. The statement is False.

<h3>What is the latency stage?</h3>

The latency stage will last for six years until puberty. This is referred to as the fourth stage of psychosexual development. No additional psychosexual growth happens at this stage since the desire is inactive.

A phase of discovery during which the reproductive energy is restricted or inactive is known as the latent period. This power is still there, but it has been transferred to other activities like learning and networking and plays a crucial role.

Therefore, the statement is False.

Learn more about the latency stage, here:

brainly.com/question/4123860

#SPJ4

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Dove, Inc., had additions to retained earnings for the year just ended of $643,000. The firm paid out $40,000 in cash dividends,
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Earnings for the year = Addition to retained earnings + Dividend paid = $643,000 + $40,000 = $683,000

a. Earnings per share = Earnings / No of shares = $683,000 / 750,000 = 0.91

Dividend per share = Dividend / No of shares = $40,000 / 750,000 = 0.05

Book value per share = Ending equity / No of shares = $7,380,000 / 750,000 = $9.84

b. Market price per share is 30.8. Market to book ratio = $30.80 / $9,84 = $3.13

c. Price earning ratio = $30.80/$0.91 = $33.82

Total sales = $10,680,000, Sales per share = 14.24

Price sales ratio = Market price / Sales = $30.80 / $14.24 = $2.16

3 0
3 years ago
Crockin Corporation is considering a machine that will save $9,000 a year in cash operating costs each year for the next six yea
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

IRR = 16.5%

Explanation:

T<em>he IRR is the discount rate that equates the present value of cash inflows to that of cash outflows. At the IRR, the Net Present Value (NPV) of a project is equal to zero  </em>

<em>If the IRR greater than the required rate of return , we accept the project for implementation  </em>

<em>If the IRR is less than that the required rate , we reject the project for implementation  </em>

IRR = a% + ( NPVa/(NPVa + NPVb)× (b-a)%

NPV = PV of annual savings - initial cost

PV of annual savings = A× (1- (1+r)^(-n) )/r

A- annual savings in operating cost , r- rate of return, n- number of years

NPVa  at 10% discount rate

PV of cash inflow = (9,000×  1-1.1^-6)/0.1 =   39,197.35  

NPV =    65,328.91 - 33,165 =  6,032.35  

NPVb at 20% discount rate

PV of cash inflow = (9,000×  1-1.2^-6)/0.2=  (3,235.41)

NPV = 29,929.59  -33,165 = (3,235.41)

IRR = a% + ( NPVa/(NPVa + NPVb)× (b-a)%

IRR = 10% + ( (6,032.35/(6,032.35 +3,235.41) )× (20-10)%= 16.51%

IRR = 16.5%

8 0
3 years ago
What is online bill payment
GrogVix [38]
Electronic billing<span> or electronic </span>bill<span> payment and presentment, is when a company, organization, or group sends its bills over the </span>internet.

Hope this helps. Mark brainlist?
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sheffield Corp. estimates its sales at 150000 units in the first quarter and that sales will increase by 15000 units each quarte
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

183,750

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Sales in the first quarter = 150,000 units

Increase in sales each quarter = 15000 units

Ending inventory = 25% of the current sales units

Now,

Ending inventory of first quarter = 25% of Units produced in the first quarter

= 0.25 × 150,000

= 37,500

Units produced in the first quarter = Sales +  Ending inventory of first quarter

= 150,000 + 37,500

= 187,500

Units to be produced in the second quarter

= Sales in second quarter - Ending inventory of first quarter + Ending inventory

=  [ 150,000 + 15,000 ] - 37,500 + 25% of [ 150,000 + 15,000 ]

= 165,000 - 37,500 + 41,250

= 168,750

Units to be produced in the Third quarter

= Sales in third quarter - Ending inventory of second quarter + Ending inventory

=  [ 150,000 + 15,000 + 15,000 ] - 41,250 + 25% of [ 150,000 + 15,000 + 15,000 ]

= 180000 - 41,250 + 45,000

= 183,750

4 0
3 years ago
The cost of goods for Mandy Manufacturing Company flow through an assembly and a finishing department before being transferred t
laila [671]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Beginning work in process = $4,000

Ending work in process in finishing department = $6,000

Cost transferred = $47,000

Direct material = $15,000

Direct labor  = $46,000

Overhead  = $22,000

Cost incurred in finishing department:

= Beginning work in process + Cost transferred + Direct material + Direct labor + Overhead

= $4,000 + $47,000 + $15,000 + $46,000 + $22,000

= $134,000

Cost of goods transferred to the Finished Goods Inventory account:

= Cost incurred in finishing - Ending work in process

= $134,000 - $6,000

= $128,000

5 0
3 years ago
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