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1 year ago

What term tells us how frequently a product is completed?

Business

1 answer:

Annette [7]1 year ago

4 0

It is Cycle Time that tells us how frequently a product is completed.

<h3>What is Cycle time?</h3>

Cycle time is a measurement of how long it takes a company to produce a good or provide a service. Learning how to determine cycle time will help you improve your production processes. This page provides a definition of cycle time, an explanation of its importance, step-by-step directions, and an example to assist you in calculating the cycle time for your company.

Cycle times can point out places where a business might simplify its procedures in order to increase sales and speed up the production of goods. Cycle times can be used to pinpoint the particular problem that might be causing the output to be sluggish.

Consequently, the phrase "cycle time" describes how frequently a product is finished.

Thus, the cycle time term tells us how frequently a product is completed

For more information on<u> cycle time</u>, refer to the following link:

brainly.com/question/15970682

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Jennifer and Jamie are starting a business and have asked you for advice about whether they should form a partnership, a corpora

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<h2>Let us understand the definition to shoot the question for better understanding.</h2>

Explanation:

Sole Proprietorship:

Owned by single person
One person responsible for liable and business
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Corporations:

Legal entities
Shared by shareholders
More complex type
Used for large business

Partnership:

Shared by two or more people
Types :general partnerships, limited partnerships, joint ventures

Questions: (reason not required as you can self-understand)

Are you going to own by oneself or shared?
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3 years ago

Overhead Variance (Over- or Underapplied), Closing to Cost of Goods Sold

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Answer:

This question has two requirements answer of each requiremnt is given below.

Dispose of the overhead variance by adjusting Cost of Goods Sold. Adjusted COGS $____

Applied Overhead = 532,000 * 80% =$ 425,600

This show that overhead are over apllied, so

Adjusted COGS = $1,890,000 - (425,600 -423,600)

= $ 1,888,000

Calculate the overhead variance for the year. $____

Overhead variance = Applied Overhead - Actual Overhead

= 425,600 -423,600

= $ 2000 (Favorable variance)

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3 years ago

At Bayside Financial, where you work as a project manager, you have been asked to conduct user training sessions for a new infor

Otrada [13]

Answer:

The correct total time is nineteen (19) days instead of twenty-one days.

Explanation:

Given the analysis of time for the project in parenthesis, it is feasible to merge some of the activities together by carrying them out simultaneously.

For example:

In the course of arranging and confirming the training facility to use which will last for 3 days, the development of the training material that ought to last for 5 days is brought down to a 2 days work because the initial 3 days for arrangement becomes vacant pending the reply on the final day. This brings the total days from 8 to 5.

Other days remain thus:

• Send an e-mail message to all department managers (1 day)

• Print copies of handout (2 days)

• Develop a set of PowerPoint slides (5 days)

• Conduct a practice training session with the instructor (2 days)

• Conduct the user training sessions (4 days).

Hence, total days are as follow:

5 +1 + 2 + 5 + 2 + 4 = 19 days.

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3 years ago

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kupik [55]

ram.asked me not to stand

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Western Electric has 32,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $80 and a rate of return of 12.95 percent

Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

c. 11.10%

Explanation:

Options are <em>"a. 10.29% b. 10.51% c. 11.10% d. 10.72% e. 11.49%"</em>

Market Value of Equity = $80 * 32,500

Market Value of Equity = $2,600,000

Market Value of Preferred Stock = $95.50 * 7350

Market Value of Preferred Stock = $701,925

Market Value of Debt = $407,000 * 1.115

Market Value of Debt = $453,805

Total Market Value = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Preferred Stock + Market Value of Debt

Total Market Value = $2,600,000 + $701,925 + $453,805

Total Market Value = $3,755,730

kP = Annual Dividend / Current Market Price

kP = $7.90 / $95.50

kP = 0.082723

kP = 8.27%

WACC = [wD * kD * (1 - t)] + [wP * kP] + [wE * kE]

WACC = [(453,805/3,755,730) * 8.11% * (1 - 0.40)] + [(701,925/3,755,730) * 8.27%] + [(2,600,000/3,755,730) * 12.95%]

WACC = 0.59% + 1.55% + 8.96%

WACC = 11.10%

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3 years ago