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12345 [234]
1 year ago
5

If $1,000 of additional spending occurs and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the total effect on the economy is an inc

rease of _____ in income or output.
Business
1 answer:
maks197457 [2]1 year ago
6 0

If $1,000 of additional spending occurs and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the total effect on the economy is an increase of $5000 in income or output

In economics, the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is defined as the proportion of an aggregate raise in pay that a consumer spends on the consumption of goods and services, as opposed to saving it. Marginal propensity to consume is a component of Keynesian macroeconomic theory and is calculated as the change in consumption divided by the change in income.

MPC is depicted by a consumption line, which is a sloped line created by plotting the change in consumption on the vertical "y" axis and the change in income on the horizontal "x" axis.

Multiplier = 1 / (1 - MPC)

MPC = Marginal propensity to consume = 0.8

So,

Multiplier = 1 / (1 - 0.8)

=> Multiplier = 5

Changes in income or output = Multiplier * Changes in spending

=> Changes in income or output = 5 * 1,000

=> Changes in income or output = $5,000

Therefore, here the income or output increases by $5,000 in the economy.

Learn more about Marginal propensity here

brainly.com/question/19089833

#SPJ4

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The following information is available for the year ended December 31: Beginning raw materials inventory$12,000 Raw materials pu
posledela

Answer:

Direct material used= $88,600

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning raw materials inventory$12,000

Raw materials purchase 88,000

Ending raw materials inventory 11,400

<u>To calculate the direct material used in production, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Direct material used= beginning inventory + purchases - ending inventory

Direct material used= 12,000 + 88,000 - 11,400

Direct material used= $88,600

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose that five years ago you borrowed $300,000 using a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage with an annual interest rate of 10% with m
Elenna [48]

Answer:

Please check the explanation below.

Explanation:

Rate of Interest =10% or 0.83% monthly

Monthly Payment under this plan=PMT(0.0083, 360, 300000) =$2,632.71

Loan outstanding after 5 years of payments =$289,723

New Interest Rate =8.5% or 0.7083% monthly

Balance Tenure= 25 years

New Monthly Installment =PMT(0.007083,300,289723) =$2,332.93

Monthly savings in installment reduction =$2,632.71 - 2,332.93 =$299.78

a. Net present value of refinancing = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-300)/0.007083}

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 299.78x124.1886

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 37,229.25

                                                  = 22,743.10

b. With new monthly installment, balance outstanding at the end of 8th year =$278,258

Net Present Value of Refinance = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-36)/0.007083}

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 299.78x31.68

                                                  = -14,486.15 + 9,446.46

                                                  = -4,989.68

c. For refinance loan to have net present value positive, let n payments are required,

NPV = -0.05x289,723 + 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-n)/0.007083}

14,486.15 = 299.78x{(1-(1+0.007083)-n)/0.007083}

14,486.15x0.00783/299.78 =(1-(1.007083)-n)

0.3423 = 1-(1.007083)-n

(1.007083)-n = 0.6577

(1.007083)n = 1.5204

Taking Log both sides,

n = log(1.5204)/log(1.007083)

n = 59.36

Hence, he would need to make 60 payments for making NPV of refinance as zero.

3 0
3 years ago
In a homogeneous-good Cornet model where each of the n firms has a constant marginal cost m and the market demand curve is p = a
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

Q=nq=\frac{n}{n+1}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n=1 (monopoly) we have Q^M=\frac{1}{2}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n goes to infinity (approaching competitive level), we get the competition quantity that would be Q^c=\frac{a-c}{b}

Explanation:

In the case of a homogeneous-good Cournot model we have that firm i will solve the following profit maximizing problem

Max_{q_i} \,\, \Pi_i=(a-b(\sum_{i=1}^n q_i)-m)q_i

from the FPC we have that

a-b\sum_{i=1}^n q_i -m -b q_i=0

q_i=\frac{a-b \sum_{i=2}^n q_i-m}{2b}

since all firms are homogeneous this means that q_i=q \forall i

then q=\frac{a-b (n-1) q-m}{2b}=\frac{a-m}{(n+1)b}

the industry output is then

Q=nq=\frac{n}{n+1}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n=1 (monopoly) we have Q^M=\frac{1}{2}\frac{a-c}{b}

if n goes to infinity (approaching competitive level), we get the competition quantity that would be Q^c=\frac{a-c}{b}

7 0
2 years ago
When marketers consider the defection rate of a market segment, what behavior are they calculating?
insens350 [35]

Answer:

Defection rate, or costumer defection rate is one of the major factors due to which a company can hit rock bottom. The costumer defection rate can be defined as the rate at which the existing costumers of a certain company leave a brand, to switch over a competitor, or stop using that certain type of product all together. If the marketers are considering the defection rate of a market segment, it means that they are considering the rate at which costumers are leaving a brand to join another, or leaving that market all together.

7 0
3 years ago
A benefit of using GDP per capita instead of GDP is that GDP: takes into account the size of the population when measuring the v
sweet [91]

Answer:

It takes population size into account when measuring the value of goods and services.

Explanation:

GDP per capita is gross domestic product divided by the total population of a given economy. Thus, unlike the GDP-only measure, which measures the absolute value of domestic production, per capita GDP assesses how much a country's economy is growing per individual, that is, it shows the evolution of production per person.

7 0
3 years ago
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