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ANTONII [103]
1 year ago
8

Q|C The speed of a one-dimensional compressional wave traveling along a thin copper rod is 3.56 km/s . The rod is given a sharp

hammer blow at one end. A listener at the far end of the rod hears the sound twice, transmitted through the metal and through air, with a time interval Δt between the two pulses.(d) Imagine that the copper rod is replaced by another material through which the speed of sound is v_r . What is the length of the rod in terms of t and v_r ?
Physics
1 answer:
Gekata [30.6K]1 year ago
8 0

The length of rod in terms v(r) and t is L = [  Δt / (1/343) - (1/v(r)) ].

3.56 km/s is the speed of a one-dimensional compressional wave moving along a thin copper rod.

At one end of the rod, a hard hammer strike is delivered. With a time interval of Δt between the two pulses, a listener at the other end of the rod hears the sound twice as it travels through the metal and the air.

The time interval is given by t = L/v.

The delay between pulses arrivals is:

Δt = L [(1/v(air)) - (1/v(copper))]

Now,

When the copper rod is swapped out for a different substance and the sound speed is measured as v(r).

The speed of air, v(air) = 343 m/s

Then,

L = [  Δt / (1/v(air)) - (1/v(r)) ]

L = [  Δt / (1/343) - (1/v(r)) ]

Here L is the length of the rod, Δt is in seconds and v(r) is the speed of sound in the rod.

Learn more about speed here:

brainly.com/question/13943409

#SPJ4

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Calculate the length of a simple pendulum that oscillates with a frequency of 0.4Hz g=10m/s2 , ^=3.142
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

For simple pendulum the formula is

T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }

Where T is time period , l is length and g is acceleration due to gravity .

\frac{1}{n} =2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }

n is frequency

Putting the values

\frac{1}{.4} =2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{10} }

\frac{l}{10} = .1584

l = 1.584 m

4 0
3 years ago
An electron moves in a circular path perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field with a magnitude of 2.14 mT. If the speed of the
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

(a) 3.9cm

(b) 1.66 x 10⁻⁸s

Explanation:

Since the electron is moving in a circular path, the centripetal acceleration needed to keep it from slipping off is provided by the magnetic force. This force (F), according to Newton's second law of motion is given by,

F = m x a          --------------(i)

Where;

m = mass of the particle

a = acceleration of the mass

The centripetal acceleration is given by;

a = v² / r          [v = linear velocity of particle, r = radius of circular path]

<em>Therefore, equation (i) becomes;</em>

F = m v²/ r             --------------------(ii)

The magnitude of the magnetic force on a moving charge in a magnetic field as stated by Lorentz's law is given by;

F = qvBsinθ          -------------(iii)

Where;

q = charge of the particle

v = velocity of the particle

B = magnetic field

θ = angle between the velocity and the magnetic field

<em>Combine equations (ii) and (iii) as follows;</em>

m (v² / r) = qvBsinθ         [divide both side by v]

m v / r = qBsinθ              [make r subject of the formula]

r = (m v) / (qBsinθ)              ---------(iv)

(a) From the question;

v = 1.48 x 10⁷m/s

B = 2.14mT = 2.14 x 10⁻³T

θ = 90°          [since the direction of velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field]

m = mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹kg

q = charge of electron = 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C

Substitute these values into equation (iv) as follows;

r = (9.11 x 10⁻³¹ x 1.48 x 10⁷) / (1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ x 2.14 x 10⁻³ sin 90°)

r = 3.9 x 10⁻²m

r = 3.9cm

Therefore, the radius of the circular path is 3.9cm

(b) The time interval required to complete one revolution is the period (T) of the motion of the electron and it is given by

T = d / v          --------------(*)

Where;

d = distance traveled in the circular path in one complete turn = 2πr

v = velocity of the motion = 1.48 x 10⁷m/s

d = 2 π (3.9 x 10⁻²)            [Take π = 22/7 = 3.142]

d = 2(3.142)(3.9 x 10⁻²) = 0.245m

Substitute the values of d and v into equation (*) as follows;

T = 0.245 / 1.48 x 10⁷

T = 0.166 x 10⁻⁷s

T = 1.66 x 10⁻⁸s

Therefore, the time interval is 1.66 x 10⁻⁸s

6 0
3 years ago
A police officer is parked by the side of the road, when a speeding car travelling at 50 mi/hrpasses. The police car immediately
Blababa [14]

Answer:

a) time taken to catch up with speeding car is 12.25 secs

b) the police car will travel 273.8 m to catch up with the speeding car

Explanation:

Given that;

speed of car V_{c} = 50 mi/hr = 22.352 m/s

acceleration of police car = 10 mi/hr = 4.47 m/s²

V_{f}  = 70 mi/hr = 31.29 m/s

Now time taken to reach maximum speed is t₁

so

V_{f} =  V_{i} + at₁

we substitute

31.29 = 0 + 4.47t₁

t₁ = 31.29 / 4.47

t₁  = 7 sec

now

d₁ = 0 + 1/2 × at₁²

d₁ = 0 + 1/2 × 0 + 4.47×(7)²

d₁ = 109.5 m

so distance travelled by the speeding car in time t₁  will be

d_{c} = V_{c} × t₁

we substitute

d_{c} = 22.352 × 7

d_{c}  = 156.46 m

now distance between polive car and speeding car

Δd =  d_{c} - d₁

Δd = 156.46 - 109.5

Δd = 46.96 m

time taken to cover Δd will be

t₂ = Δd / ( V_{f} - V_{c} )

t₂ = 46.96 / ( 31.29 - 22.352 )

t₂ = 46.96 / 8.938

t₂ = 5.25 sec

distance travelled by the police in time t₂ will be

d₂ = V_{f} × t₂

d₂ = 31.29 × 5.25

d₂ = 164.3 m

a) How long will it take before the officer catches up to the speeding car;

time taken to catch up with speeding car;

t = t₁ + t₂

t = 7 + 5.25

t = 12.25 secs

Therefore, time taken to catch up with speeding car is 12.25 secs

b)  how far will it have travelled in order to do so;

distance = d₁ + d₂

distance = 109.5 + 164.3

distance = 273.8 m

Therefore, the police car will travel 273.8 m to catch up with the speeding car

6 0
3 years ago
A sound wave has a frequency of 425Hz. What is the period of this wave? a) 0.00235 b) 0.807 c) 425 d) 850
swat32

the answer is a) 0.00235 because 1/425=0.00235. hope I helped!

3 0
3 years ago
A 8.4-mH inductor carries a current I = Imaxsin ωt, with Imax = 4.00 A and f = ω/2π = 60.0 Hz. What is the self-induced emf as a
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

E= -3.166 cosωt   V

Explanation:

Given that

I = Imax sinωt

L= 8.4 m H

Imax= 4 A

f = ω/2π = 60.0 Hz

ω = 120π  rad/s

We know that self induce E given as

E=-L\dfrac{dI}{dt}

\dfrac{dI}{dt}= Imax \ \omega\ cos\omega t

E=-L\times Imax \ \omega\ cos\omega t

E=-8.4\times 120\times \pi \ cos\omega t

E= -3166.72 cosωt  m V

E= -3.166 cosωt   V

This is the induce emf.

3 0
3 years ago
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