Answer:
(0,1)
Step-by-step explanation:
the answer is (0,1)
Answer:
- tan(θ) = 5/3
- sin(θ) = 5√34/34
- sec(θ) = √34/3
Step-by-step explanation:
The hypotenuse is given by the Pythagorean theorem:
h = √(3² +5²) = √34
The trig functions are the ratios of sides:
Tan = Opposite/Adjacent
tan(θ) = 5/3
__
Sin = Opposite/Hypotenuse
sin(θ) = 5/√34 = (5/34)√34
__
Sec = Hypotenuse/Adjacent
sec(θ) = √34/3
Answer:
We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.
Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.
Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have
number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.
Answer:
42
Step-by-step explanation: