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andrezito [222]
1 year ago
9

The x-intercepts of cosine become what for the secant function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anuta_ua [19.1K]1 year ago
8 0

using the definition of secant we know that,

sec(x)=\frac{1}{cos(x)}

then, the definition of x-intercept is that the function evaluated is equal to 0 then, if f(x) is equal to cos(x)

f(x)=cos(x)

we can say that if the function is equal to 0 then the function secant will look something like this

\begin{gathered} sec(x)=\frac{1}{0} \\  \end{gathered}

and we know that any number divided by 0 is undefined, so the x.intercepts make the function secant undefined, meaning that the x-intercepts become vertical asymptotes in the secant function.

Answer:

The x-intercepts of the function cosine become the vertical asymptotes of the secant function.

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