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umka21 [38]
1 year ago
10

Classify the disadvantages of unconventional oil and gas extraction as belonging to ei sands mining. ther hydraulic fracturing o

r tar Hydraulic fracturing Tar sands mining Answer Bank local groundwater contamination huge lakes of acidic and toxic wastewater Output outpaces transportation capacity requires heated pipelines for transport destroys habitat and pollutes watersheds corporate rights to oil and gas on private property The breakeven price is S60 per barrel. ye more greenhouse gas emissions Wastewater in injection wells triggers earthquakes.
Physics
1 answer:
Bad White [126]1 year ago
5 0

The disadvantages of unconventional oil and gas extraction as belonging to tar sands mining are as follows:-

Oil and gas extraction:-

  • Local groundwater contamination
  • Corporate rights to oil and gas on private property
  • Waste water in injection wells triggers earthquakes
  • Output outpaces transportations

Tar sand mining:-

  • 20% more greenhouse gas emission
  • Requires heated pipelines for transport
  • Huge lakes of acidic and toxic waste water
  • Destroys habitat and pollutes watersheds

Learn more about gas extraction here:- brainly.com/question/1990340

#SPJ4

Disclaimer:- your question is incomplete, please see below for the complete question.

Classify the disadvantages of unconventional oil and gas extraction as belonging to ei sands mining.

a. ther hydraulic fracturing or tar Hydraulic fracturing Tar sands.

b. mining Answer Bank local groundwater contamination huge lakes of acidic and toxic.

C. wastewater Output outpaces transportation capacity requires heated pipelines for transport destroys habitat and pollutes watersheds corporate rights to oil and gas on private property

D.The breakeven price is S60 per barrel. ye more greenhouse gas emissions Wastewater in injection wells triggers earthquakes

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castortr0y [4]

Answer:

a) 43.20V

b) 2.71W/s

c) 40.25s

d) 7.77Nm

Explanation:

(a) The emf of a rotating coil with N turns is given by:

emf=NBA\omega sin(\omega t)

N: turns

B: magnitude of the magnetic field

A: area

w: angular velocity

the emf max is given by:

emf_{max}=NBA\omega=(50)(1.80T)(0.200m*0.100m)(24.0rad/s)\\\\emf_{max}=43.20V

(b) the maximum rate of change of the magnetic flux is given by:

\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt}=\frac{d(A\cdot B)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(ABcos\omega t)=AB\omega sin(\omega t)\\\\\frac{d\Phi_B}{dt}_{max}=(\pi(0.200*0.100))(1.80T)(24.0rad/s)=2.71\frac{W}{s}

(c) emf(t=0.050s)=(50)(1.80T)(0.200m*0.100m)(24rad/s)sin(24.0rad/s(0.050s))\\\\emf(t=0.050s)=40.26V

(d) The torque is given by:

\tau=NABIsin\theta\\\\NAB\omega=emf_{max}\\\\\tau=\frac{emf_{max}}{\omega}\frac{emf_{max}}{R}\\\\\tau=\frac{(43.20V)^2}{(24.0rad/s)(10.0\Omega)}=7.77Nm

3 0
3 years ago
How did private industries benefit from military expenditures?
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

option A: the government paid private industries for goods and services.

Explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Two children, Ferdinand and Isabella, are playing with a waterhose on a sunny summer day. Isabella is holding the hose in herhan
sweet [91]

Answer:

84.196%

Explanation:

g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

y_0=1\ m

x = 10 m

t = Time taken

v_0 = 3.5 m/s (assumed, as it is not given)

A_0 = \pi 1.5^2

We have the equation

y=y_0+ut+\dfrac{1}{2}gt^2\\\Rightarrow 0=y_0-\dfrac{1}{2}gt^2\\\Rightarrow t=\sqrt{\dfrac{2y_0}{g}}\\\Rightarrow t=\sqrt{\dfrac{2\times 1}{9.81}}\\\Rightarrow t=0.45152\ s

x=x_0+vt\\\Rightarrow 10=0+v0.45152\\\Rightarrow v=\dfrac{10}{0.45152}\\\Rightarrow v=22.14741\ m/s

From continuity equation we have

Av=A_0v_0\\\Rightarrow A=\dfrac{A_0v_0}{v}\\\Rightarrow A=\dfrac{\pi 1.5^2\times 3.5}{22.14741}\\\Rightarrow A=1.11706\ cm^2

Fraction is given by

f=\dfrac{A_0-A}{A_0}\times 100\\\Rightarrow f=\dfrac{\pi 1.5^2-1.11706}{\pi 1.5^2}\times 100\\\Rightarrow f=84.196\ \%

The fraction is 84.196%

4 0
3 years ago
A 20-Kg child is on a swing attached to 3.0 m-long chains. The child swings back and forth, swinging out to a 60-degree angle. (
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

 v = 29.4 m / s

Explanation:

For this exercise we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

Lowest starting point.

          Em₀ = K = ½ m v²

final point. Higher

          Em_{f} = U = m g h

Let's use trigonometry to lock her up

          cos 60 = y / L

          y = L cos 60

Height is the initial length minus the length at the maximum angle

           h = L - L cos 60

           h = L (1- cos 60)

energy is conserved

         Em₀ = Em_{f}

          ½ m v² = mgL (1 - cos 60)

         v = 2g L (1- cos 60)

 

let's calculate

          v² = 2 9.8 3.0 (1- cos 60)

          v = 29.4 m / s

6 0
3 years ago
Why does an atom have a net zero charge?
Luda [366]
The atom is neutral because the number of protons is equal to number of electrons in which they cancel the charges of each other and the arom becomes neutral
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