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DerKrebs [107]
2 years ago
8

you are assessing a 38-year-old woman who reports achy abdominal pain, burning on urination, and a slight fever. as you assist h

er to the ambulance, you notice that she has a shuffling gait. what condition does this indicate?
Medicine
1 answer:
Semenov [28]2 years ago
7 0

You are examining a 38-year-old woman who complains of abdomen pain, burning when urinating, and a little temperature, all of which point to PDI.

An infection of a woman's reproductive organs is known as a pelvic inflammatory disease. It's a problem that several STDs, like chlamydia and gonorrhea, frequently bring on. PID can also be brought on by other infections that are not sexually transmitted.

Antibiotics of several kinds can treat PID. Antibiotic therapy, however, does not undo any scarring brought on by the illness. For this reason, a woman must seek medical attention right once if she experiences pelvic pain or other PID symptoms.

Assessing a 38-year-old lady who complains of aching stomach pain, burning during urine, and a minor fever is hence indicative of PDI disease.

LEARN MORE ABOUT PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE HERE:

brainly.com/question/4411861

#SPJ4

Complete Question

You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is reporting achy abdominal pain, burning urination, and a slight fever. As you assist her to the ambulance, you notice that she has a shuffling gait. What condition does this indicate?

A) Bacterial vaginosis

B) Chlamydia

C) Ectopic pregnancy

D) PID

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Answer:

1 tablet and a half.

Explanation:

1 mg is equivalent to 1/60gr

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1 gr is equivalent to 60 mg.

Since you need to give 1/4 gr of morphine sulfate, you need to give 1/4 of 60mg. If you will calculate that, you will need to give 15 mg of morphine sulfate. Since the tablets come in 10 mg, you will need to give 1 tablet and a half.

You can also compute it this way:

\dfrac{1}{4}gr\times \dfrac{60mg}{1gr} = \dfrac{60mg}{4}=15mg

15mg\times \dfrac{1 tablet}{10mg} = 1.5 tablets

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