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Kamila [148]
2 years ago
7

Another company plans to issue 20-year bonds with a face value of $1,000 and an annual coupon rate of 10%. The market price of s

imilar bonds is $1,098. Flotation costs are estimated to be 5% for each bond. If interest payments are made annually, and the company’s marginal tax rate is 34%, what is the after-tax cost of debt?.
Business
1 answer:
Lorico [155]2 years ago
6 0

The after-tax cost of debt is 6.28%.  Subtract a company's effective tax rate from one and multiply the difference by its cost of debt to calculate its after-tax cost of debt.

<h3>What is After-tax cost?</h3>
  • After-tax cost denotes the actual costs less an amount equal to the combined federal and state income tax savings relating to the deductibility of said costs for federal and state tax purposes in the year in which such costs are incurred.
  • WACC represents a company's average after-tax cost of capital from all sources, including common stock, preferred stock, bonds, and other forms of debt.
  • WACC is the average interest rate that a company anticipates paying to finance its assets. The pre-tax cost of debt must be tax-affected because interest is tax-deductible, effectively creating a "tax shield" that is, interest expense reduces a company's taxable income (earnings before taxes, or EBT).

Therefore,

The after-tax cost of debt is 6.28%.

FV = -$1,000

PMT = -$100

N = 20 years

PV = $1,098 before including flotation costs; $1,098×(1-.05) = $1,043.10 after including flotation costs.

Compute I/Y = 9.511%

After-tax cost of debt = 9.511%×(1-.34) = 6.28%

To learn more about After-tax cost, refer to:

brainly.com/question/25790997

#SPJ4

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What is the goal of materials handling? a. Minimize length of time product is held in storage b. Minimize time spent sorting del
artcher [175]

Answer:

d. Minimize the number of times a product is handled

Explanation:

Material handling is the process by which products are passed from different stages of production and delivery before getting to the consumer.

Since material handling is an essential activity in production businesses plan to reduce cost on this activity.

The best way to reduce handling cost is to reduce the number of time a product needs to be handled.

That is reducing to the barest minimum the touch points in process like sorting, moving, preparing, and storing products

3 0
3 years ago
AB Builders, Inc., has 18-year bonds outstanding with a par value of $2,000 and a quoted price of 102.037. The bonds pay interes
I am Lyosha [343]

Answer:

6.82%

Explanation:

In this question we use the PMT formula that is shown on the attachment below:

Given that,  

Present value = 102.037% × $2,000 = $2,040.74

Future value = $2,000

Rate of interest = 6.62% ÷ 2 = 3.31%

NPER = 18 years  2 = 36 years

The formula is shown below:

= PMT(Rate;NPER;-PV;FV;type)

The present value come in negative

So, after solving this, the monthly payment is $68.15

Now the coupon rate is

= PMT ÷ face value × 2

= $68.15 ÷ $2,000 × 2

= 6.82%

8 0
3 years ago
The Manda Panda Company uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. At the beginning of 2018, the allowance account had
muminat

Answer:

1. Does this situation describe a loss contingency?

Yes, the situation reflect the necessity of report a loss contingency because the it's needed to cover the 3% of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts

2. What is the bad debt expense that Manda Panda should report in its 2018 income statement? $11.325

3. Prepare the appropriate journal entry to record the contingency.

Please see explanation section.

4. Complete the table below to calculate the net realizable value Manda Panda should report in its 2018 balance sheet?

Explanation:

The entry to reflect the bad expenses of the contingency:

Bad debt expense $ 11.325  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 11.325

Net Realizable Value is:

Accounts Receivable $ 507.500  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 15.225

Net Realizable Value  $ 492.275  

Initial Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 507.500  End 2018

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  - $ 92.400 Beginning 2018

Entry when $88,500 in receivables were determined to be uncollectible.  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 88.500  

Accounts Receivable   $ 88.500

(Keep in mind that the balance of Acc Rec is at the end of 2018, so this entry had already been registered.)

New Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 507.500  End 2018

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 3.900 End 2018

Bad debt expense  $ 11.325  to complete the 3%

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 11.325  

New Balance    

Accounts Receivable  $ 507.500  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 15.225 3%

Net Realizable Value  $ 492.275  

5 0
3 years ago
A Japanese firm issued and sold a pound denominated bond in the United Kingdom. A U.S. firm issued bonds denominated in dollars
wel

The U.S. bond is a Eurobond and the Japanese bond is termed a foreign bond.

Answer: Option C

<u>Explanation:</u>

The bond that has been issued by the firm in the United States of America is denominated in the US dollars only. But it is sold in Japan. So this bond is a Euro bond.

But since the bond issued by the Japanese firm is denominated in pounds. And this pound denominated bond is also sold in the United Kingdom, therefore this bond is a foreign bond and not a euro bond.

5 0
3 years ago
Dawson Toys, Ltd., produces a toy called the Maze. The company has recently established a standard cost system to help control c
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

1.-3,120 Favorable variance.

2.$704Unfavorable variance

Explanation:

Material price variance:

Actual price is $0.28

Standard price 0.32

Actual quantity 78,000

Material price variance = (Actual price - Standard price) Actual quantity=

(0.28 - 0.32)*78,000

= (-0.04) 78,000= -3,120 Favorable variance.

2. Material quantity variance:

Actual quantity of material used (78,000 - 27,000) = 51,000

Standard quantity of material for the actual level of production (5,100 toys x 8 microns per toy) =48,800 toys

Standard price per unit of material = $0.32

Material quantity variance = (Actual quantity used - Standard quantity of material for actual level of production) Standard price

= (51,000 - 48,800)* $0.32

= (2,200) $0.32 = $704Unfavorable variance

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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