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sesenic [268]
1 year ago
6

A share of stock with a beta of 0. 75 currently sells for $50. Investors expect the stock to pay a year-end dividend of $2. The

1 year t-bill currently sells for $961. 54, and the historic return on the market is 11%, the historic risk free rate is 4%. If the stock is perceived to be fairly priced today, what must be investors’ expectation of the price of the stock at the end of the year?.
Business
1 answer:
Rama09 [41]1 year ago
3 0

Expected price next year = $62.58

Beta is 0.75, PO is $50, D1 is $2, RF is 11%, and RM is 4%.

Where,

Expected Dividend = D

Po = Price as of today.

Risk-free Rate is Rf.

Market risk premium is Rm.

g = rate of growth

Equity cost is Rf plus beta minus Rm.

Equity cost is 11% plus 0.75 and 4%.

Equity cost = 3.33%

Making use of the Dividend Discount Model to Estimate Growth Rate

(D1/P0) + g = ke

(2/50) + g = 3.33%

0.04 + g= 3.33%

g = 3%

Expected price for the following year = $2*1.033/ (0.03-0.033)

Expected price next year = $62.58

What is Expected price?

As its name suggests, predicted price level is a forecast that takes into account accurate evaluation of pertinent economic data to foretell what will happen with those goods and services in the future. Making changes to this level when new information becomes available is essential because unknowable factors may become real over time.

To learn more about Expected price visit:brainly.com/question/19169084

#SPJ4

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You purchase another company for $50m. The company you purchase has assets with a fair value of $75m and liabilities with a fair
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

b. $5m

Explanation:

If we purchase another company for $50m and the company you purchase has assets with a fair value of $75m and liabilities with a fair value of $30m. The amount of goodwill we should record in this transaction is: $5m

Goodwill upon acquisition of companies is derived by subtracting the fair value of NET ASSETS from the TOTAL CONSIDERATION (i.e the price paid to acquire the company)

In the scenario, the value of Net Assets is the value of the fairvalue of the assets less the fair value of the liabilities which is $75 - $30 = $45

While the Total Consideration = $50

Therefore Goodwill = $50m - $45m = $5m

5 0
3 years ago
Changes in net operating working capital should not be reflected in a capital budgeting cash flow analysis because capital budge
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

The correct answer is False.

Explanation:

Net working capital, or "Working Capital" is simply the difference between current or current assets and current or short-term liabilities of a company.

Cash flow, on the other hand, is the net amount of cash and its equivalents that is transferred inside and outside the company and that may originate in operational, investment or financing activities.

Cash flow will have an operational origin, when there is a net decrease in working capital. In this situation there will be a net cash release that the company can use freely to honor debts, reinvest in operations, pay dividends, cover expenses or provide funds for future investments.

A negative cash flow, from the point of view of operations, implies that the company has increased its cash demands to finance sales on credit or inventory. That is, it has increased its investment in working capital. Situation that will require an analysis that allows a better way to manage capital.

6 0
3 years ago
Retained earnings $52,000 Accounts Payable $15,000 Supplies 37,000 Common stock 25,000 Equipment 72,000 Note payable (due in 18
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

$22,000

Explanation:

Current liabilities are debts that a company must pay within a twelve month period.

This company's current liabilities are:

  • Accounts payable  $15,000
  • Interest payable  $7,000

Total current liabilities = $15,000 + $7,000 = $22,000

Since the note payable is due in 18 months, it is not considered a current liability.  

8 0
3 years ago
The coefficient of variation, calculated as the standard deviation of expected returns divided by the expected return, is a stan
SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

The correct answer is True.

Explanation:

Whenever a conflict arises within the classification of projects between the expected monetary value and the standard deviation, the coefficient of variation is used to try to solve the problem. For this reason, it is concluded that the coefficient of variation is a standardized measure of risk.

5 0
3 years ago
You can purchase an item you need for a project for $10,000 and it has daily operating costs of $500, or you can lease the item
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

On the 50th day, the purchase cost will be equal to the lease cost

Explanation:

Given that:

  • Daily operating costs of $500
  • Purchasing cost for the item:  $10,000
  • Lease amount: $700

Let x is the number of days the purchase cost be the same as the lease cost. As we now that:

The total cost should be equal to the total lease received

<=> 10,000 + 500x = 700x

<=> 200x = 10000

<=> x = 50

Hence, on the 50th day, the purchase cost will be equal to the lease cost

3 0
3 years ago
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