Answer:
Many
Homogenous
There are no barriers
Have perfect knowledge
Explanation:
A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods. Because there are many sellers of homogenous goods, firms are price takers.
Because there are no barriers to entry, in the long run, firms earn zero economic profit.
Because buyers and sellers have perfect knowledge of prices, price arbitrage isn't possible.
I hope my answer helps you.
In relation to market sizing, matters tend to be a bit simpler for b2b sellers as compared to b2c dealers.
The "marketplace sizing" is made from the entire wide variety of capacity shoppers of a service or product inside a given market, and the entire revenue that these sales might also generate. it's crucial to calculate and understand marketplace size for several reasons.
Market sizing research affords insights into market funding decisions and ambitions to discover the ability of a marketplace in terms of length and profitability.
Everyday market length (NMS) is the minimum range of stocks that market makers ought to deal with in a transaction for that specific stock at a specific charge. normal market length way that there may be an assured bid and offer in the inventory to maintain expenses and trades flowing.
Learn more about market sizing here: brainly.com/question/13859545
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Answer:
Investor A = $545216 .
Investor B = $352377
Investor C = $897594
Explanation:
Annual rate ( r ) = 9.38%
N = 41 years
<u> Calculate the balance at age of 65</u>
1) For Investor A
balance at the end of 10 years
= $2000 (FIA, 9.38 %, 10) (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $33845
Hence at the end of 65 years ( balance )
= $33845 (FIP, 9.38 %, 31) ≈ $545216 .
2) For investor B
at the age of 65 years ( balance )
= $2000 (FIP, 9.38%, 31) = $322159 x (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $352377
3) For Investor C
at the age of 65 years ( balance )
= $2000 (FIP, 9.38%, 41) = $820620 x (1 + 0.0938) ≈ $897594
Answer:
a). M1=$808 billion
b). M2=1,068 billion
Explanation:
M1 is the money supply that is the most liquid and is or can be easily converted into cash. The formula for calculating M1 is;
M1=C+D+T+S
where;
M1=money supply
C=currency held outside banks
D=checkable deposits
T=traveler's checks
S=small-denomination time deposits
In our case;
M1=unknown
C=$354 billion
D=$250 billion
T=$4 billion
S=$200 billion
replacing;
M1=(354+250+4+200)=$808 billion
M1=$808 billion
M2 includes elements of M1 and additional money supply that are near liquid. The formula is;
M2=M1+savings deposit+mutual funds
where;
M1=$808 billion
savings=$100 billion
retail money market mutual funds=$160
replacing;
M2=(808+100+160)=1,068 billion
M2=1,068 billion
