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koban [17]
3 years ago
8

I need help with all these questions

Mathematics
1 answer:
Klio2033 [76]3 years ago
4 0
6. 13
7. 262
8. ? For the first part but the sum is $118
9. ?
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The legs of a right triangle measure 6 centimeters and 8 centimeters. How long is the hypotenuse in centimeters?
klemol [59]

Answer:

10cm ( A )

Step-by-step explanation:

This would use the Pythagorean Theorem. That means it would be -

a^2_b^2= c^2, in this case, you have 2 of your legs already so those two values would be a&b. you would stick those two into the equation and it should look like this:

6^2+8^2=c^2

then 36+64=c

and then 100=c

after that, you would take the square root of c to get

10!

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The positions of two villages A and B. Village B is 100km away and on a bearing of 083° from village A.
blagie [28]

Answer:

23•1

Step-by-step explanation:

83°/360°×100km=23•1

7 0
3 years ago
Pam signed up for a new gym. She had to pay a $45 sign-up fee and will pay dues of $30 each month for 6 months. Which expression
erastovalidia [21]

Answer:

45 + (30*6)

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Which congruence criteria is met in the following scenario?
Arisa [49]
None because the triangles have different lines
7 0
2 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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