Answer:
Arbitrage opportunity may exists as the ZCBs selling at different price at same time due to change in their YTM .
The PV of 100 face value zcb with different ytm are different , in this case.
for one year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv/ pv at 8% = 92.59
for Two year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv / Pv at 9% for two years = 84.167 , if the bond holder sell the bond after 1 year only, the price = 91.74 .
a) The arbitrage opportunity exist with buy two bond with face value 100 with maturity of 1 year and face value 110 with maturity of 2 years.
b) profit 0.01 , as difference between PV of both bond at their YTM rate.
Answer:
The __Paasche Index or Current-Weighted Index_______ is based on all the goods and services produced in the economy, which make it a current-weights index.
Explanation:
The Current-Weighted Index is an index that calculates the weighted average of prices or quantities or with the weights used proportionate to the quantities or prices of the goods. At regular intervals, the weights have to re-calculated in line with the current realities. This regular re-calculation of the weights, which is the basis for its name, makes it current.
D sounds like the best answer
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Trade off can be expressed in terms of opportunity cost.
Opportunity cost or implicit is the cost of the option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.
Kyoko has limited time so she has to choose between three activities. If she chooses one sport, she would not be able to partake in the other activities. So, she is trading off biking or running for swimming.
Trade off occurs because resources are limited and wants are unlimited.
Answer:
The correct answer is B: $5,600
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Schager Company purchased a computer system for $40,000. The estimated useful life is 10 years, and the estimated residual value is $5,000.
Double-declining balance method= Netbook value* (2/useful life in years)
Year 1:
Double-declining balance method= (40000-5000)*(2/10)= $7000
Year 2:
Double-declining balance method= (35000-7000)*0.20= $5,600
