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MariettaO [177]
3 years ago
13

Estimate the Product of 58 and 16

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alinara [238K]3 years ago
7 0
928 you are multiplying
Tanzania [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

928

Step-by-step explanation:

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The price of a fan is $15. This price is 27% lower than last week.
Goshia [24]

The price of fan was 20 Dollars 55 cents last week.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let,

The price last week = x

As the price is 27% lower than last week, therefore

(100%-27%) * Price last week = $15

73% * x = 15

Solving the percentage;

\frac{73}{100}*x=15\\ Multiplying\ both\ sides\ by\ 100\\100*\frac{73x}{100} = 15*100\\73x=1500\\Dividing\ both\ sides\ by\ 73\\\frac{73x}{73} = \frac{1500}{73} \\x= 20.55

The price of fan was 20 Dollars 55 cents last week.

Keywords: Percentage, multiplication.

Learn more about percentages at:

  • brainly.com/question/2140933
  • brainly.com/question/2142762

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
2 years ago
In a standard deck of 52 playing cards, what is the probability
Deffense [45]

Answer:C

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Solve the inequality. -4x + 15 < -21
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

x>9

Step-by-step explanation:

-4x + 15 < -21

Subtract 15 from each side

-4x + 15-15 < -21-15

-4x < -36

Divide each side by -4, remembering to flip the inequality

-4x/-4> -36/-4

x >9

6 0
3 years ago
ABCD∼EFGH AD=45 in. , EH=75 in. , and AB=30 in. What is EF ? Enter your answer in the box. EF = in.
Helen [10]
The ~ symbol means that the 2 shapes are similar, meaning the same shape but not the same size.

To determine the measure of side length EF, you must find the relationship between the 2 side lengths.

You should set these up as ratios of the length to the width. So, for ABCD, it is 30/45. Make this equal to x/75. If you simplify the first ratio to 2:3, you can then multiply by both numerator and denominator by 25 to get x = 25 in/ 75 in.

Another way is to use cross products with you proportion. 75 x 30 = 45x. Solve for x to get 50 inches.
6 0
3 years ago
Which function is the inverse of f(x)= B^X
Scrat [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's retype that as y = b^x.  The inverse of this function is log    y = x  

                                                                                                        b

which you could also write as  y = ln     x

                                                             b

If you had y = e^x, the inverse function would be y = ln x.

Note that if you let ln x be the input to y = e^x, the result would be just 'x,' which confirms that these two functions are inverses of one another.

8 0
3 years ago
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