NO It can not!
Reason: the reason is because since both are the same , it will equal the mostly 0! So it wouldn’t make sense. So no!
Hoped I help mark brainly it would help me a lot!
Answer:
k = -3
Step-by-step explanation:
F(x) has a positive slope
g(x) has a negative slope
Let x = -3
The y value goes from 1 to -3
g(x) = k⋅f(x)
-3 = k(1)
-3 = k
All you do is multiply 60 * 40 = 2400 ft squared. you find area of a square by multiplying base * length. SO the answer is "D"
Answer:
a) y = 0.74x + 18.99; b) 80; c) r = 0.92, r² = 0.85; r² tells us that 85% of the variance in the dependent variable, the final average, is predictable from the independent variable, the first test score.
Step-by-step explanation:
For part a,
We first plot the data using a graphing calculator. We then run a linear regression on the data.
In the form y = ax + b, we get an a value that rounds to 0.74 and a b value that rounds to 18.99. This gives us the equation
y = 0.74x + 18.99.
For part b,
To find the final average of a student who made an 83 on the first test, we substitute 83 in place of x in our regression equation:
y = 0.74(83) + 18.99
y = 61.42 + 18.99 = 80.41
Rounded to the nearest percent, this is 80.
For part c,
The value of r is 0.92. This tells us that the line is a 92% fit for the data.
The value of r² is 0.85. This is the coefficient of determination; it tells us how much of the dependent variable can be predicted from the independent variable.
