Answer:
16 times as strong
Explanation:
From the question given above, the following assumptions were made:
Initial Force (F₁) = F
Initial distance apart (r₁) = r
Final distance apart (r₂) = ¼r
Final force (F₂) =?
Next, we shall obtain a relationship between the force and the distance apart. This can be obtained as follow:
F = GM₁M₂ / r²
Cross multiply
Fr² = GM₁M₂
If G, M₁ and M₂ are kept constant, then,
F₁r₁² = F₂r₂²
Finally, we determine the new force as follow:
Initial Force (F₁) = F
Initial distance apart (r₁) = r
Final distance apart (r₂) = ¼r
Final force (F₂) =?
Fr² = F₂ × (¼r)²
Fr² = F₂ × r²/16
Fr² = F₂r² / 16
Cross multiply
16Fr² = F₂r²
Divide both side by r²
F₂ = 16Fr² / r²
F₂ = 16F
From the calculations made above, we can see that the new force is 16 times the original force.
Thus, the new force is 16 times stronger.
<h2>
Answer: The spreading of waves behind an aperture ismore for long wavelengths and less for short wavelengths</h2>
Here we are talking about Diffraction and, in fact, waves diffract the most when their wavelength is about the same size of the gap or aperture.
Diffraction happens when a wave (mechanical or electromagnetic wave) meets an obstacle or a slit .When this occurs, <u>the wave bends around the corners of the obstacle or passes through the opening of the slit that acts as an obstacle, forming multiple patterns with the shape of the aperture of the slit.
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Note that the principal condition for the occurrence of this phenomena is that the obstacle must be comparable in size (similar size) to the size of the wavelength.
In other words, when the gap (or slit) size is larger than the wavelength, the wave passes through the gap and does not spread out much on the other side, but when the gap size is equal to the wavelength, maximum diffraction occurs and the waves spread out greatly.
This means the smaller the slit or obstacle (diffracting object), the wider the resulting diffraction pattern, and the greater the obstacle, the narrower de resulting patter.
Answer:
Explanation:
The radius of the circumference described by a particle in a cyclotron is given by:
m is the particle's mass, v is the speed of the particle, q is the particle's charge and B is the magnitude of the magnetic field.
Kinetic energy is defined as:
Solving this for mv:
Replacing (2) in (1):
For protons, we have:
For alpha particles, we have:
Dividing (4) in (3):
Answer:
0.84μF
Explanation:
Charge is same through both the capacitors since they are in series. Total voltage is the sum of the voltages of the individual capacitors.. So voltage across the 2nd capacitor is 120- 90 =30 V.
Charge across first capacitor is Q = C₁V₁ = 90 x0.28 = 25.2μC
Therefore capacitance of 2nd capacitor =
C₂ = Q÷V₂ = 25.2÷30 = 0.84 μF
