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klemol [59]
3 years ago
13

Refer to the table below if needed.

Mathematics
2 answers:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

y=c that make 0 and then i mulitply -1 to -12

then i did the opposite for 360 time -12 that 700 and then i devided and got 12

kondaur [170]3 years ago
4 0
Use socratic instead..
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∠A and ∠B are complementary. m∠A=29°. find m∠B.
Georgia [21]

Answer:

55 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Add the expressions up and set up an equation.

( 2 x − 29 ) + ( x + 23 ) = 90 Simplify and solve for x.

3 x − 6 = 90 3 x = 96 x = 32 Find angle B.

x + 23 = 32 + 23 = 55

Hope this helps, have a nice day/night! :D

5 0
3 years ago
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Simplify by using order of operations: 4 + (9∙2) ÷ (4 - 1) - 4
Stella [2.4K]

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

Use <u>PEMDAS</u>

P = parenthesis

E = Exponents

M = Multiplication*

D = Division*

A = Addition**

S = Subtraction**

*either can come first, it just depends which comes first in the equation.

**either can come first, it just depends which comes first in the equation.

<em>Step 1 : Write equation</em>   4( 9 × 2 ) ÷ ( 4 -1 ) - 4

<em>Step 2: Solve in parenthesis   </em>4(18) ÷ (3) - 4

<em>Step 3: Solve multiplication   </em> 72 ÷ 3 - 4

<em>Step 4: Solve division               </em>24 - 4

<em>Step 5 : Solve subtraction</em>         20

3 0
3 years ago
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Hiiiiiii im soooooooo tired but i gotta clean my room lol
kumpel [21]

Answer:

lol

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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Jay was reaching into her purse and accidentally spilled her coin purse. 10 pennies fell on the floor. Jay noticed that only 2 o
kompoz [17]

Answer:

4.39%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are no marking to identify the coins, so the order is not important. Since the order not important we use combination instead of permutation.

A coin have 2 possible outcome, head or tails. Assuming the coin is fair each outcome will be 50% or 0.5 chance. If heads= A and tails =B, then the probability of 2 pennies will be:

P(A=2) = 2C10 * A^2 * B^(10-2)

P(A=2) = 10*9/2 * 0.5^2 * 0.5^8

P(A=2) = 0.0439= 4.39%

6 0
3 years ago
Which equation can be used to solve for m∠1? m∠1 = One-half(a – b) m∠1 = One-half(a + b) m∠1 = One-half(c – d) m∠1 = One-half(c
Artemon [7]

Answer:

m\angle 1=\frac{1}{2}(arc\ a+arc\ b)

Step-by-step explanation:

The picture of the question in the attached figure

we know that

The measure of the<u><em> interior angle</em></u> is the semi-sum of the arches that comprise it and its opposite.

so

m\angle 1=\frac{1}{2}(arc\ a+arc\ b)

8 0
3 years ago
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