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USPshnik [31]
3 years ago
6

The stock of Lavender Corporation is held as follows: 80% by Jade Corporation (basis of $400,000) and 20% by Tiffany (basis of $

100,000). Lavender Corporation is liquidated in December of the current year, pursuant to a plan adopted earlier in the year. Pursuant to the liquidation, Lavender Corporation distributed Asset A (basis of $600,000, fair market value of $900,000) to Jade, and Asset B (basis of $250,000, fair market value of $225,000) to Tiffany. No election is made under § 338. With respect to the liquidation of Lavender:
(A) Lavender recognizes a loss of $25,000 on the distribution of Asset B.
(B) Jade has a basis in Asset A of $900,000.
(C) Tiffany has a basis in Asset B of $225,000.
(D) Jade recognizes a gain of $500,000.
(E) Lavender recognizes a gain of $300,000 on the distribution of Asset A.
Business
1 answer:
hodyreva [135]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C) Tiffany has a basis in Asset B of $225,000.

Explanation:

Tiffany's basis in asset B is equal to the fair market value of the asset = $225,000.

When distributions are made from a subsidiary corporation to a minority shareholder, pursuant to a liquidation, the corporation can only recognize gains, but not losses. Therefore Lavender cannot recognize the $25,000 loss on the distribution of asset B to Tiffany (= $225,000 - $250,000).

Also, Jade Corporation (the parent company) does not recognize any loss or gain on the distribution, and has a basis of $600,000 in asset A which equals the Lavender's basis for the asset.

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You are a U.S.-based treasurer with $1,000,000 to invest. The dollar-euro exchange rate is quoted as $1.60 = €1.00 and the dolla
kotykmax [81]

Answer: An astute trader can make $ 41,666.66.

Explanation: You must first change

$ 1,000,000 per pounds, which would leave a total of £ 500,000. ($ 1,000,000 / 2.00 = £ 500,000;).

Secondly spend £ 500,000 to euros, obtaining € 600,000 (£ 500,000 x 1.20 = € 600,000;).

Thirdly, with euros, buying dollars again, obtaining $ 960,000 (€ 600,000 x 1.60 = $ 960,000), that is, an arbitrage loss of -40,000 in relation to the initial investment.

Finally you must return in the opposite direction:

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4 0
3 years ago
Companies often use several methods to evaluate the project's cash flows and each of them has its benefits and disadvantages. Pl
lukranit [14]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in a microsoft excel document.  

Explanation  

Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.  

4 0
3 years ago
Capico is a pharmaceutical company. The company has its factory outlets in various countries and is currently not planning on an
Harman [31]

Capico will need credit for Research and development as it should research on the new drug and also study about its competitors

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cullumber Company had a beginning inventory on January 1 of 75 units of Product 4-18-15 at a cost of $18 per unit. During the ye
lora16 [44]

Answer:

Weighted average:

EI:            2,290

COGS:     9, 160

LIFO

EI:            2,400

COGS:     9,050

FIFO

EI:            3,000

COGS:     8,450

Explanation:

beginning 75 units at $ 18 = $  1,350

Mar. 15    200 units at $21 =  $ 4,200

Sept. 4    175 units at $24 =  $ 1,800

July 20   125 units at $22 =  $ 2,750

Dec. 2      50 units at $27 =  $ 1,350

total units:  625 units cost of goods available: 11,450

average cost: 11,450/625  =  $ 18.32 per unit

inventory units: 625 - 500 = 125 units

Weighted average:

EI:          125 x $18.32 = 2,290

COGS: 500 x $18.32 = 9, 160

500 units were sold

LIFO:

last units are sold while frist are inventory

ending inventory

beginning 75 units at $ 18 = $  1,350

Mar. 15      50 units at $21 =  $<u>  1,050  </u>

                                  Total      2,400

COGS: available - ending inventory

11,450 - 2,400 = 9,050

FIFO

first units are sold while last are inventory

Dec. 2      50 units at $27 =  $ 1,350

July 20     75 units at $22 =  $ <u>1,650   </u>

                                  Total      3,000

COGS: available - ending inventory

11,450 - 3,000 = 8,450

7 0
3 years ago
Explain. Brainliest.
Rus_ich [418]
Alright, well look like this:

Public goods are goods that are open to anyone. They can’t turn down customers, and they can’t turn down even people who don’t pay.

Excludable goods means the people CAN turn away those who don’t pay. So, this is wrong.

Goods for a profit means that no matter what, they make money. Meaning those who can’t pay can still be turned away.

Privately owned goods can be turned away to and from anyone. This is also wrong.

Nonexcludable goods means that ANYONE can use this good or service, they aren’t for profit, they are non-rivalrous, etc. This is your answer.

<span>~Hope this helps!</span>

7 0
3 years ago
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