Answer: its yes
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: v= pie r^2 h/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
Differentiating with the chain rule gives
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1
so that
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Let x = a; then
(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)
(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)
In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then
(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5
You just have to find the angle whose sine is 0.1045. Use the sin-1 key on your calculator ( make sure its set to degrees first)
m < B = 6.000 degrees to nearest thousandth
Answer: 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Eliminate the negative and change the operation.
4 + 1
Rewrite equation with parts separated
4 + + 1 +
Add whole numbers
4 + 1 = 5
Solve fraction
+ = ??
Find LCD of and . LCD = 15
+ =
Simplify fraction
= 1
Combine whole number and fraction
5 + 1 + = 6
