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slava [35]
3 years ago
7

Why doesn’t inverse variation have no x and y intercept?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kirill115 [55]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Since k is constant, we can find k given any point by multiplying the x-coordinate by the y-coordinate. For example, if y varies inversely as x, and x = 5 when y = 2, then the constant of variation is k = xy = 5(2) = 10. Thus, the equation describing this inverse variation is xy = 10 or y = .

I hope this was the answer u were looking for.

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\bf \qquad \qquad \textit{inverse proportional variation}\\\\
\textit{\underline{y} varies inversely with \underline{x}}\qquad \qquad  y=\cfrac{k}{x}\impliedby 
\begin{array}{llll}
k=constant\ of\\
\qquad  variation
\end{array}\\\\
-------------------------------\\\\
\textit{we also know that }
\begin{cases}
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x=3
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\\\\\\
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