Answer:
The magnitude of the flux of electric field through a square of surface area is zero.
Explanation:

It is given that square box is parallel to yz-plane which has normal vector perpendicular to plane in x-direction. Angle between normal vector of area and electric field is 90°. Substituting in (1)

The top pair of pliers failed to loosen a stubborn bolt, but the bottom pair successfully removed it. Because the contact between the bolt and the pliers working surface is less.
<h3>What is mechanical advantage ?</h3>
Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system, it is used to obtained efficiency of the given mechanical machine.
The efficiency to open the stubborn bolt depends upon the contact between the working surface of the pliers and the bolt.
The contact between the bolt and the top pair of pliers working surface is less. Its mechanical advantage is less.
Hence, the top pair of pliers failed to loosen a stubborn bolt, but the bottom pair successfully removed it.
To learn more about the mechanical advantage, refer to the link;
brainly.com/question/7638820
#SPJ1
Answer:
31.831 Hz.
Explanation:
<u>Given:</u>
The vertical displacement of a wave is given in generalized form as

<em>where</em>,
- A = amplitude of the displacement of the wave.
- k = wave number of the wave =

= wavelength of the wave.- x = horizontal displacement of the wave.
= angular frequency of the wave =
.- f = frequency of the wave.
- t = time at which the displacement is calculated.
On comparing the generalized equation with the given equation of the displacement of the wave, we get,

therefore,

It is the required frequency of the wave.
Answer:
Kinda? Depends what the question is fully asking
Explanation:
Acceleration is a change in velocity. So I guess if the velocity of something is -2 m/s and its positively accelerating at a value of +1 m/s, then that means every second its velocity changes by +1m/s.
So that -2 m/s thing after one second will be going -1 m/s.
After another second it'll be going 0 m/s.
After another itll be going +1 m/s and so on.
So at one point for a brief moment, it can have an acceleration but be at 0 m/s velocity.
Answer:
Part a)

Part B)

Part C)

Explanation:
Part a)
Magnetic field due to a long ideal solenoid is given by

n = number of turns per unit length



now we know that magnetic field due to solenoid is


Now magnetic flux due to this magnetic field is given by




Part B)
Now for mutual inductance we know that




now we have


Part C)
As we know that induced EMF is given as


