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Stolb23 [73]
3 years ago
11

Annual production and sales level of Product A1 is 9,280 units, and the annual production and sales level of Product B2 is 23,11

0 units. What is the approximate overhead cost per unit of Product B2 under activity-based costing
Business
1 answer:
xxTIMURxx [149]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Overhead per unit of Product B2 = $4.46

Explanation:

We know,

Allocation overhead to product line under A B C costing = Total overhead cost of specific product line/total number of products sold.

For each activity, the allocated overhead cost to product B2 = Total budgeted cost × [Product B2/(Product A1 + Product B2 of that activity)]

Activity 1 allocated to Product B2 line: $56,000 × 5,600/7,600 = $41,263

Activity 2 allocated to Product B2 line: $71,000 × 5,560/8,600 = $45,902

Activity 3 allocated to Product B2 line: $96,000 × 1,600/9,600 = $16,000

Total overhead allocated to Product B2 = $103,165

Overhead per unit of Product B2: $103,165/23,110 = $4.46

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Answer:

The correct answer is option a.

Explanation:

The law of comparative advantage states that a country should produce and export that product in which it experiences comparatively lower opportunity costs. The countries will be said to be specializing in the production of goods and services that they can produce at a relatively lower opportunity cost.  

If two countries produce and exchange the goods they specialize in, they will be able to jointly produce more and consume more than they could individually.

3 0
3 years ago
The "Brasher doubloon," which was featured in the plot of the Raymond Chandler novel, The High Window, was sold at auction in 20
Strike441 [17]

Answer:

The time line from minting to the first sale is:

0-192

$15 - $430,000

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r :

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($430,000/$15)1/192 - 1

r = .0549, or 5.49%

The time line from the first sale to the second sale is:

0-35

$430,000 - $4,582,500

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Using the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r:

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($4,582,500/$430,000)1/35 - 1

r = .0699, or 6.99%

The time line from minting to the second sale is:

0-227

$15 - $4,582,500

we can use either the FV or the PV formula. Both will give the same answer since they are the inverse of each other. We will use the FV formula, that is:

FV = PV(1 + r)t

Solving for r, we get:

r = (FV/PV)1/t - 1

r = ($4,582,500/$15)1/227 - 1

r = .0572, or 5.72%

6 0
3 years ago
Consider the following two goods: beer and hamburgers. The slope of the consumer’s budget constraint is measured by the
topjm [15]

Answer:

D. relative price of beer and hamburgers

5 0
3 years ago
A firm's operations drive its structure. <br> a. True <br> b. False
Wittaler [7]
True hope this helped
6 0
3 years ago
Why does the law of increasing opportunity cost occur?
Elena L [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is A and B

Explanation:

Law of increasing the opportunity cost is the principle or the concept which is defined as the company continue to increase the production of one good, the opportunity cost of producing the next unit will increase.

It is as to reallocate the resources in order to produce that one good which was better or best suited to produce the original good.

The law of opportunity cost occur when some of the resources are best suited for some tasks or products instead of others and it will lead to increase in production with increase in the opportunity cost too.

8 0
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