Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

12

A football player starts on the 20 yard line and gains 9 yards. on the next play, he loses 4 yards. the referee says there��s a

penalty and takes away the 4-yard loss of yardage. which expression represents the total number of yards gained?

2 answers:

sladkih [1.3K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The required expression is 20+9-4-(-4).

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

We will use the "+" sign for gains and "-" sign to represents the loss.

A football player starts on the 20 yard line and gains 9 yards. This can be written as: 20+9

On the next play, he loses 4 yards. This can be written as 20+9-4

The referee says there is a penalty and takes away the 4-yard loss of yardage. This can be written as:

20+9-4-(-4)

Hence, the required expression is 20+9-4-(-4).

Arada [10]3 years ago

3 0

The answer is <span>20 + 9 – 4 – (−4)

i took the test</span>

You might be interested in

I need some help solving for x! Thanks :)

slega [8]

Given:

The figure of a rhombus.

To find:

The value of x.

Solution:

We know that, if two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are equal.

From the given figure it is clear that the diagonals intersect each other and construct two pairs of vertically opposite angles.

Since $95^\circ$ and $x^\circ$ are vertically opposite angles, therefore

$x^\circ=95^\circ$

Hence, the value of x is 95°.

3 0

3 years ago

Find the area of the parallelogram: b= 10 ft, h= 8 ft

Kazeer [188]

Answer:

i dont think you have the full question here...

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

13 POINTS- please help me

allsm [11]

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

16. Two parallel lines are cut by transversal. Angles with measures $(6x+20)^{\circ}$ and $(x+100)^{\circ}$ are alternate exterior angles. By alternate exterior angles, the measures of alternate exterior angles are the same:

$6x+20=x+100\\ \\6x-x=100-20\\ \\5x=80\\ \\x=16$

Then

$(6x+20)^{\circ}=(6\cdot 16+20)^{\circ}=116^{\circ}\\ \\(x+100)^{\circ}=(16+100)^{\circ}=116^{\circ}$

17. Two parallel lines are cut by transversal. Angles with measures $(2x+12)^{\circ}$ and $(3x-22)^{\circ}$ are alternate interior angles. By alternate interior angles, the measures of alternate interior angles are the same:

$2x+12=3x-22\\ \\2x-3x=-22-12\\ \\-x=-34\\ \\x=34$

Then

$(2x+12)^{\circ}=(2\cdot 34+12)^{\circ}=80^{\circ}\\ \\(3x-22)^{\circ}=(3\cdot 34-22)^{\circ}=80^{\circ}$

18. Two parallel lines are cut by transversal. Angles with measures $(6x-7)^{\circ}$ and $(5x+10)^{\circ}$ are alternate exterior angles. By alternate interior angles, the measures of alternate exterior angles are the same:

$6x-7=5x+10\\ \\6x-5x=10+7\\ \\x=17$

Then

$(6x-7)^{\circ}=(6\cdot 17-7)^{\circ}=95^{\circ}\\ \\(5x+10)^{\circ}=(5\cdot 17+10)^{\circ}=95^{\circ}$

19. The diagram shows two complementary angles with measures $2x^{\circ}$ and $56^{\circ}$ . The measures of complementary angles add up to $90^{\circ},$ then

$2x+56=90\\ \\2x=90-56\\ \\2x=34\\ \\x=17$

Hence,

$2x^{\circ}=2\cdot 17^{\circ}=34^{\circ}$

Check:

$34^{\circ}+56^{\circ}=90^{\circ}$

20. Angles $\angle 1$ and $\angle 2$ are vertical angles. By vertical angles theorem, vertical angles are congruent, so

$m\angle 1=m\angle 2\\ \\5x+7=3x+15\\ \\5x-3x=15-7\\ \\2x=8\\ \\x=4$

Hence,

$m\angle 1=(5x+7)^{\circ}=(5\cdot 4+7)^{\circ}=27^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle 2=(3x+15)^{\circ}=(3\cdot 4+15)^{\circ}=27^{\circ}$

21. $\angle 5$ and $\angle 8$ are supplementary. The measures of supplementary angles add up to $180^{\circ},$ so

$m\angle 5+m\angle 8=180^{\circ}\\ \\3x-40+7x-120=180\\ \\10x-160=180\\ \\10x=180+160\\ \\10x=340\\ \\x=34$

Therefore,

$m\angle 5=(3x-40)^{\circ}=(3\cdot 34-40)^{\circ}=62^{\circ}\\ \\m\angle 8=(7x-120)^{\circ}=(7\cdot 34-120)^{\circ}=118^{\circ}\\ \\62^{\circ}+118^{\circ}=180^{\circ}$

7 0

2 years ago

Henry and his mom is making cupcakes for the PTA meeting the have to make 60 cupcakes but the PTA only needs 40 and it’s Henry b

Alex73 [517]

Answer:

70

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Why do the probability of an event and the probability of its complement add up to 1

Ad libitum [116K]

<span>the probability of an event and the probability of its complement add up to 1 because the total events are the even it self and its compliment, so its probability equal to 1 because these are all the possible events that will occur. for example a coin toss, an event head will happen 0.5, and its complement is tails which will also happens 0.5</span>

5 0

3 years ago