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DaniilM [7]
3 years ago
11

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the requirements and objectives associated with an Integrated Baseline R

eview (IBR)?
A. The IBR identifies the risks associated with executing to the current Performance Measurement Baseline and integrated master schedule.
B. Subsequent IBRs may be required whenever an established Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) is unachievable and a new PMB is required.
C. The IBR is conducted exclusively by the Government and contractor business management staff and technical staff are rarely included.
D. The IBR assesses the validity of the Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB) and the Integrated Master Schedule (IMS).
E. Participants in an IBR typically include the Government PM and technical staff, along with the related contractor's staff.
Business
1 answer:
Elodia [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The other options are true regarding the requirements and objectives associated with IBR

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Suppose the benefit of owning a painting, in terms of your personal enjoyment, is worth 5% of the value of the painting. If the
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3 years ago
Fred purchases a bond, newly issued by the Big Time Corporation, for $10,000. The bond pays $400 to its holder at the end of the
natali 33 [55]

Answer:

The correct answer is $10,000, 4% and 4th year.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Initial purchase = $10,000

At the end of 1st, 2nd and 3rd year = $400

At the end of 4th year = $10,400

(1). The principal amount of this bond is $10,000.

As Initial purchase of bond = Principal amount of bond.

(2). The coupon rate is 4%.

As, at the end of 4th year it pays = $10,400

Here, Principal amount = $10,000 and coupon value = $400

So, Coupon rate = $400 ÷ $10,000 = 4%

(3). The term of this bond is 4 years.

As the principal amount is repaid fully at the end of 4th year.

3 0
3 years ago
Which is the best measure of risk for a single asset held in isolation (Stand Alone Investment), and which is the best measure f
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

  • Single asset = Coefficient of Variation
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Explanation:

When dealing with standalone risk, coefficient of variation is best because it shows the amount by which the asset's returns might deviate from the average returns of the market.

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