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3 years ago

As Luke rides his bike down a hill, potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. What is this an example of?

Physics

1 answer:

Musya8 [376]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

If I am correct, the answer is D. Law of conservation of energy

Explanation:

the potential energy "converts" to kinetic once Luke is in motion.

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777dan777 [17]

Answer:

idek to be honest

Explanation:

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2 years ago

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The pulley shown in the attached diagram has a diameter of 30 centimeters and a mass of 19 kilograms. The pulley is a solid disk

aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

a) I = ½mR² = ½(19)(0.15²) = 0.21375 kg•m²

b) τ = Fnet(r) = (25 - 12)(0.15) = 1.95 N•m

c) CCW

d) a = τ/I = 1.95 / 0.21375 = 9.12280701... = 9.1 rad/s²

e) CCW

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2 years ago

At height h above the surface of Earth, the gravitational acceleration is What is h? Note: The radius of Earth is 6380 km.

rusak2 [61]

The acceleration of gravity is inversely proportional to
the square of the distance from Earth's center.

The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s² on the Earth's surface ...
6380 km from the center.

If the acceleration of gravity at 'h' is 4.9 m/s² ... 1/2 of what it is
on the surface, then the distance from the center is

(6380 x √2) = 9,023 km (rounded) ,

and 'h' is the distance above the surface

= (9,023 - 6,380) = 2,643 km (rounded) .

4 0

3 years ago

For a given amount of gas at a constant temperature, the volume of a gas varies inversely with its pressure is a statement of __

Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

d. Boyle's

Explanation:

Boyle's Law: States that the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional proportional to its pressure, provided temperature remains constant.

Stating this mathematically. this implies that:

V∝1/P

V = k/P, Where k is the constant of proportionality

PV = k

P₁V₁ = P₂V₂

Where P₁ and P₂ are the initial and final pressure respectively, V₁ and V₂ are the the initial and final volume respectively.

Hence the right option is d. Boyle's

8 0

3 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

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3 years ago