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nadya68 [22]
4 years ago
10

A polynomial function has a zero at 4 (multiplicity 3) and 0 (multiplicity 1). write a function in standard form

Mathematics
2 answers:
kozerog [31]4 years ago
6 0
Y=3x(x-4)
Hope this helps!!
miv72 [106K]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The function is :

f(x)=x^{4}-12x^{3}+48x^{2}-64x

Step-by-step explanation:

For a polynomial, if x=a is a zero of the function, then (x-a) is a factor of the function.

Also if x=a is a zero of the function with multiplicity k , then (x-a)^{k} is a factor of the function.

We can write the function as the product of the factors using its zeros.

x=4 is a zero with multiplicity 3 ⇒ (x-4)^{3} is a factor of the function

x=0 is a zero with multiplicity 1 ⇒ (x-0)^{1}=x^{1}=x is a factor of the function

Finally, we can write the function f(x) as the product of its factors :

f(x)=x.(x-4)^{3}

If we work with the expression of f(x) :

x.(x-4)^{3}=x.[x^{3}+3x^{2}(-4)+3x(-4)^{2}+(-4)^{3}]

⇒

x.(x^{3}-12x^{2}+48x-64) = x^{4}-12x^{3}+48x^{2}-64x

The function written in standard form is :

f(x)=x^{4}-12x^{3}+48x^{2}-64x

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Aleks04 [339]
The answer woukd be 3.00 u guess math is my worst subject dont rage if it wrong
6 0
3 years ago
If the area of a parallelogram is<br> 120 ft.^2 and the base is 15 ft.,<br> what is the height?
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

8 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a paralellagram is b*h. Since we know the base, 15, we can plug this into an equation.

15(h) = 120.

Divide by 15 on both sides to get you 8.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Recall that the primes fall into three categories: Let Pi be the set of
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)Let p be the smallest prime divisor of (n!)^2+1 if p<=n then p|n! Hence p can not divide (n!)^2+1. Hence p>n

(b) (n!)^2=-1 mod p now by format theorem (n!)^(p-1)= 1 mod p ( as p doesn't divide (n!)^2)

Hence (-1)^(p-1)/2= 1 mod p hence [ as p-1/2 is an integer] and hence( p-1)/2 is even number hence p is of the form 4k+1

(C) now let p be the largest prime of the form 4k+1 consider x= (p!)^2+1 . Let q be the smallest prime dividing x . By the previous exercises q> p and q is also of the form 4k+1 hence contradiction. Hence P_1 is infinite

4 0
3 years ago
4w^2+4w+1=25<br> NEED HELP PLEASEEE
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

w=2, -3

Step-by-step explanation:

minus 25 from each side

1+-25+4w^2+4w=25+-25

combine like terms

-24+4w^2+4w=0

factor out the greatest Common factor

4(-6+w+w^2)=0

factor a trinomial

4((-3+-1w)(2+-1w))=0

I hope this helps!

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3 years ago
I need the answer for numbers 1-4 to see if I’m correct. Anyone know?
svetlana [45]
They are all correct good job
8 0
3 years ago
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