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3 years ago

Feedback given by the job is more effective than formal appraisals from their boss

2 answers:

7 0

That is true! Feedback given by the job is more effective than formal appraisal from your boss, because their are no surprises about your rating at your job and everything is planned out; on estimated evaluation & rating.

Difference between informal & formal appraisal

Informal appraisal- your boss evaluates, open feedback while getting coffee, or during work. (Early feedback is more effective then surprised work results)
advantage- knowing your weakness and improving on job, beforehand evaluation, efficiency

Formal appraisal- surprised work evaluation of the job- disadvantage- not knowing your results, weakness on job, inefficiency.

Hope this helps :)

Ierofanga [76]3 years ago

5 0

The answer to your question is; B. False

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Sheridan Company sells its product for $7100 per unit. Variable costs per unit are: manufacturing, $4400, and selling and admini

Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Sheridan Company

Income Statement

For the year ended December 31, 202x

Sales revenue $170,400

Cost of goods sold ($129,600)

Gross profit $40,800

Period costs ($24,000)

Operating income $16,800

cost of goods manufactured 2019 (or 2020, it is the same)= (20 x $4,500) + $18,000 = $108,000 / 20 = $5,400 per unit

COGS 2020 = 24 x $5,400 = $129,600

sales revenue = 24 x $7,100 = $170,400

4 0

3 years ago

Thom owes $7,200 on his credit card. The credit card carries an APR of 18.4 percent compounded monthly. If Thom makes monthly pa

DanielleElmas [232]

Answer: 45 months

Explanation:

Credit owed $7200

Monthly payment $225

APR annaully 18.4%

Monthly APR = 18.4/12 = 1.533%

SOLUTION

1st Month interest payment

1.533% x $7200 / 100 = $110.40

Principal paid (monthly payment - interest paid) = $225 - $110.40 = $114.60

Balance ( principal - principal paid) = 7200 - 114.60 = $7085.40

2nd Month interest payment

1.533% x $7085.40 / 100 = $108.64

Principal paid (monthly payment - interest paid) = $225 - $108.64 = $116.36

Balance ( principal - principal paid) = $7085.40 - $116.36 = $6969.04

By following this step up to the 45th month you get $74.74 as the monthly payment this sums up to.

Month interest payment

1.533% x $74.74 / 100 = $1.15

Principal paid (monthly payment - interest paid) = $75.88 - $1.15 = $74.74

Balance ( principal - principal paid) = $74.74 - $74.74 = $0

The payment would be completed at exactly 45months

7 0

3 years ago

Review each of the investment opportunities provided by Earll Investments and Pima Financial Trading. In at least two to three p

irga5000 [103]

Answer:

Investment Opportunity 1 has a few risks.Though it invests in stocks, it makes consistent profits. It lacks volatility because managers carefully select stocks with long-term earning potential. Investment Opportunity 2 risks are related to changing interest rates, which can cause bonds to make less money for bondholders. Also, it may be affected by inflation, and it carries the risk of default: if a city or county government fails to make its bond payments, then the bondholder loses money. Both companies tell you the risks, and they have the same level of it. Investment Opportunity 1 has three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years.The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Investment Opportunity 2 also provided three documents to illustrate the fund’s risks and returns over the past five years. The first graph lists how a hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years. The second graph lists an overall earnings percentage for four different earnings periods. The final graphic shows how the company rates the level of risk. Both say the potential returns of each investment, but investment opportunity 1 hypothetical investment of $10,000 fared over those five years is not as steady as investment opportunity 2. Investment Opportunity 2 is the fraudulent one because its percentage of return is better than investment opportunity 1. Both are with large companies that are almost just alike but investment opportunity 2 has a better rates of return. The first one serves thousands of customers and specializes in managing stocks and mutual funds. The second firm serves thousands of customers, and it specializes in managing mutual funds that invest in bonds.

Explanation: Hope this helps this is what I used for Edge 2020 ^-^. Also I do not take credit for this answer, but I feel like this is a very well and detailed answer.

7 0

3 years ago

The economists at JET Consulting consider Campbell’s Soup to be an inferior good. During a recession, when the income in the eco

Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

Shift to right

increase

increase.

Explanation:

Demand curve:- It is a representation of number of units of a service will be bought at which price. It is a graph or plot between price and quantity.price on y-axis and quantity on x-axis.

To bring the equilibrium the the demand curve is needed to shift to right to increase the equilibrium of the price and quantity.

3 0

3 years ago

1. Alex Meir recently won a lottery and has the option of receiving one of the following three prizes: (1) $74,000 cash immediat

sergey [27]

Answer:

1. The PV of option 3 which is $90,000 is the highest. Therefore, Alex will choose option 3 because it has the highset PV.

2. The fund balance after the last payment is made on December 31, 2027 will be approximately $1,934,302.71.

Explanation:

1. Assuming an interest rate of 6%, determine the present value for the above options. Which option should Alex choose?

Alex will choose the option with the highest present value (PV). The present value of each option can be determined as follows:

Option 1: $74,000 cash immediately

PV of option 1 = $74,000

Option 2: $26,000 cash immediately and a six-period annuity of $8,300 beginning one year from today

PV of $26,000 cash immediately = $26,000

PV of a six-period annuity of $8,300 beginning one year from today can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV of $8,300 annuity = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV = Present value of the $8,300 annual payments today =?

P = Annual payment = $8,300

r = interest rate = 6% = 0.06

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV of $8,300 annuity = $8,300 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.06))^6) / 0.06)

PV of $8,300 annuity = $8,300 * 4.9173243260054

PV of $8,300 annuity = $40,813.79

Therefore,

PV of option 2 = PV of $26,000 cash immediately + PV of $8,300 annuity = $26,000 + $40,813.79 = $66,813.79

Option 3: a six-period annuity of $15,000 beginning one year from today

The PV of option 2 can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV of option 3 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV of option 3 = Present value of the $15,000 annual payments today =?

P = Annual payment = $15,000

r = interest rate = 6% = 0.06

n = number of years = 6

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PV of option 3 = $15,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.06))^6) / 0.06)

PV of option 3 = $15,000 * 4.9173243260054

PV of option 3 = $90,000

Based on the calculations, the PV of option 3 which is $90,000 is the highest. Therefore, Alex will choose option 3.

2. Assuming that the bank account pays 7% interest compounded annually, what will be the fund balance after the last payment is made on December 31, 2027?

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity is used as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (3)

Where,

FV = Future value of the deposits after 10 years =?

M = Annual deposits = $140,000

r = annual interest rate = 7%, or 0.07

n = number of years = 10

Substituting the values into equation (3), we have:

FV = $140,000 * (((1 + 0.07)^10 - 1) / 0.07)

FV = $140,000 * 13.8164479612795

FV = $1,934,302.71

Therefore, the fund balance after the last payment is made on December 31, 2027 will be approximately $1,934,302.71.

4 0

3 years ago