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svetlana [45]
3 years ago
11

What is the conversion factor to convert cups to liters?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gemiola [76]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

0.2365882365 L/cup

Step-by-step explanation:

The conversion factor can be found from the size of a cup in relation to a gallon, and the size of a cubic inch in relation to a liter.

1\,\text{cup}=8\,\text{fl oz}\times\dfrac{231\,in^{3}}{128\,\text{fl oz}}\times\left(\dfrac{0.254\,\text{dm}}{1\,\text{in}}\right)^{3}\times\dfrac{1\,L}{1\,dm^{3}}\\\\=\dfrac{8\cdot 231\cdot 0.254^{3}}{128}\,L=0.2365882365\,L

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The length of a rectangle is two more than the width. the perimeter is 36cm. write a system of equations that could be used to d
mel-nik [20]
If the length is two times its width and its perimeter is 36cm. we can write the following equation
let the width be X.
so the equation will be:
(X + 2X)2=36cm or
2X + 4X=36cm
3 0
4 years ago
A rectangular container that measures 2 cm x 11 cm x 20 cm is completely filled with water. The water is then poured into a holl
maksim [4K]

Answer:

14cm

Step-by-step explanation:

formula of a rectangular container is LBH and we were given that LBH is 2*11*20 which is equal to 440cm.

Now when the water is transferred into a hollow cylindrical container.the formula for that is 2pierh.440=2*22/7*5*h

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3 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?
astraxan [27]
ANSWER


The value of the expression is
- 1


EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
{i}^{2}


The expression given to us is,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}


We use the fact that
{i}^{2}  =  - 1
to simplify the above expression.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{3}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{4}


This implies,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  {i}^{0}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2}   \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}


We substitute to obtain,

{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  - 1 \times  - 1  \times  - 1\times  - 1 \times  - 1


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  1\times  1 \times   1  \times  - 1 =  - 1


Method 2: Use indices to solve.



{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}



This implies that,


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  = {i}^{10}




{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (  {{i}^{2}} )^{5}


{i}^{0}  \times {i}^{1}  \times {i}^{2}  \times {i}^{3}  \times {i}^{4}  =  (   - 1 )^{5}   =  - 1


8 0
4 years ago
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3 years ago
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What is i^22 if i^2 is -1
Sever21 [200]
I^22 equals to -1 since i^2 is negative one
4 0
2 years ago
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