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andriy [413]
4 years ago
5

Mortgage banks typically will attempt to sell loans as quickly as possible after they are originated by either issuing mortgage

securities or selling the loan to an intermediary that will subsequently sell the loan in the secondary market. The period between loan commitment and loan sale is referred to as the __________.A) mortgage pipeline.
B) mortgage note.
C) mortgage fallout.
D) mortgage term.
Business
1 answer:
Lemur [1.5K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A) mortgage pipeline.

B) mortgage

Explanation:

Mortgage banks typically will attempt to sell loans as quickly as possible after they are originated by either issuing mortgage securities or selling the loan to an intermediary that will subsequently sell the loan in the secondary market. The period between loan commitment and loan sale is referred to as the mortgage pipeline.

A mortgage pipeline refers to mortgage loans that are locked-in with a mortgage originator by borrowers, mortgage brokers, or other lenders. <u>A loan stays in an originator's pipeline from the time it is locked until it falls out, is sold</u> into the secondary mortgage market, or is put into the originator's loan portfolio.

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Using the chart below for reference, how would you describe the relationship between the amount of education you receive and the
Maslowich

Answer:

Positive correlation

Explanation:

As the level of education increases, the higher the level of income. This is a perfect example of a positive correlation. An increase in one of the variables ( education) increases the other variable( income). A positive correlation is also a direct relationship.

A negative correlation or indirect relationship is when an increase in one variable leads to the other variable moving in the opposite direction.

4 0
3 years ago
The city of Jacksonville, Florida is issuing $100,000,000 of general obligation bonds paying interest on January 1st and July 1s
Yuri [45]

Answer: Odd first interest payment

Explanation: The Interest paid on the first installment is a odd first Interest payment. Such scenario comes into play when a loan with a fixed installment payment date, which is 6 months in this case (January 1st and July 1st), begins on a date which does not allow the immediate use to f this regular payment schedule. Hence, the odd first Interst payment is adopted in other to enable the lender cove r the initial period before beung able to use the usual regular payment schedule. In this case the odd first Interest schedule is between June 1st to January 1st. After which regular payment schedule commences on July 1st.

5 0
3 years ago
Practice Makes Perfect Inc. was started on July 1 of the current year. Practice Makes Perfect provides piano lessons for student
Natalka [10]

Answer:

I used an excel spreadsheet to record this transactions on an accounting equation.  

Practice Makes Perfect, Inc.

Income Statement

For the month ended July 31, 202x

Revenues                                               $2,000

Expenses:

  • Advertising expense $500
  • Rent expense $1,000
  • Wages expense $1,000
  • Supplies expense $300
  • Depreciation expense $750
  • Interest expense $417                 <u> ($3,967)</u>

Net income                                             ($1,967)

Practice Makes Perfect, Inc.

Balance Sheet

For the month ended July 31, 202x

Assets:

  • Cash $99,783
  • Accounts receivables $1,800
  • Supplies $1,700
  • Pianos $47,250

Total assets                                         $150,533

Liabilities:

  • Accounts payable $2,500
  • Notes payable $50,000

Total liabilities                                      $52,500

Stockholders' equity

  • Common stock $100,000
  • Retained earnings ($1,967)

Total stockholders' equity                  $98,033

Total liabilities + equity                      $150,533        

Download pdf
6 0
3 years ago
Condensed financial data are presented below for the Phoenix Corporation:
dybincka [34]

Answer:

profit margin 7.77%

<em><u>Interpretation: </u></em> from evey dollar of sales the firm achieves almost 8 cent of net income

inventory turnover ratio 3.45

<em><u>Interpretation: </u></em>the inventory is sold 3 and a half times during the year

Explanation:

the profit margin is the quotient between net income and sales.

\frac{net \: income}{sales} = $profit margin

127,500 / 1,640,000 = 7.77%

the inventory turnover wil be the cost of good sold over the average inventory during the year

(312,500 + 257,500)/ 2  = 285,000

982,500 / 285,000 = 3,447368421

6 0
3 years ago
G why is the future value always more than the present value?
olya-2409 [2.1K]
The future value is always more than the present value because the value of the dollar can be higher in the next day. plus it can be adding the interest in the future value. 
3 0
3 years ago
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