Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
A) The GAAP statement is based on cost function rather than cost behavior.
Explanation:
Income statements that follow GAAP rules categorizes expenses based on their business function: product, selling or administrative.
While cost behavior categorizes costs based on how they influence a company's activities: variable, fixed and mixed. When a manager wants to measure the impact of any decision he/she makes, they need to use this type of categorization. For example, if fixed costs increase, what is the new break even point? If variable costs decrease, how is the marginal cost affected?
Answer:
Low betas.
Explanation:
Low beta stocks are considered to be less risky, and usually they also offer low returns. The risk of losing capital in this type of investment is very low. This type of investment is ideal for people that are risk adverse and prefer to maintain their capital even at low returns.
On the other hand the higher the beta the higher the risk, and it also comes with higher returns on investment.
Because the needs for household goods and food are always constant, the companies that supply them tend to have stock that are low beta.
Answer:
Kd = 7%
Ke = D1 + g
Po(1 - FC)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$40(1 - 0.15)
Ke = $2 + 0.09
$34
Ke = 0.1488 = 14.88%
WACC = Ke(E/V) + Kd(D/V)(1-T)
WACC = 14.88(60/100) + 7(40/100)(1 - 0.40)
WACC = 8.928 + 1.68
WACC = 10.6%
Explanation:
In this case before-tax cost of debt is given. Cost of equity is expected dividend divided by current market price after flotation cost plus growth rate. WACC is calculated as cost of equity multiplied by the proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure.
Answer:
d. A larger fixed assets turnover ratio and a larger gain on asset disposal
Explanation:
Accelerated depreciation is a method of depreciation whereby the book value of an asset is rapidly depreciated or reduced i.e at an accelerated rate.
This method usually minimizes taxable income in the initial years as a higher amount of depreciation is claimed.
Fixed assets turnover ratio refers to what percentage of net sales is attributable to an entity's fixed assets. It is expressed as:
Gain on sale of asset disposal = Sale value - Book Value
Book Value = Cost less accumulated depreciation till date
As can be seen, Average fixed assets balance would reduce thereby increasing fixed assets turnover ratio.
Similarly, due to higher depreciation charged, Book Value would be comparatively less, which would lead to larger gain on assets disposal in the initial years.
