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Volgvan
3 years ago
12

In a permanent magnet,

Physics
1 answer:
VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
7 0
A is the best answer. This is what makes the magnetic field of the magnet.
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Two identical small metal spheres with q1 > 0 and |q1| > |q2| attract each other with a force of magnitude 72.1 mN when se
Brrunno [24]

1) +2.19\mu C

The electrostatic force between two charges is given by

F=k\frac{q_1 q_2}{r^2} (1)

where

k is the Coulomb's constant

q1, q2 are the two charges

r is the separation between the charges

When the two spheres are brought in contact with each other, the charge equally redistribute among the two spheres, such that each sphere will have a charge of

\frac{Q}{2}

where Q is the total charge between the two spheres.

So we can actually rewrite the force as

F=k\frac{(\frac{Q}{2})^2}{r^2}

And since we know that

r = 1.41 m (distance between the spheres)

F= 21.63 mN = 0.02163 N

(the sign is positive since the charges repel each other)

We can solve the equation for Q:

Q=2\sqrt{\frac{Fr^2}{k}}=2\sqrt{\frac{(0.02163)(1.41)^2}{8.98755\cdot 10^9}}}=4.37\cdot 10^{-6} C

So, the final charge on the sphere on the right is

\frac{Q}{2}=\frac{4.37\cdot 10^{-6} C}{2}=2.19\cdot 10^{-6}C=+2.19\mu C

2) q_1 = +6.70 \mu C

Now we know the total charge initially on the two spheres. Moreover, at the beginning we know that

F = -72.1 mN = -0.0721 N (we put a negative sign since the force is attractive, which means that the charges have opposite signs)

r = 1.41 m is the separation between the charges

And also,

q_2 = Q-q_1

So we can rewrite eq.(1) as

F=k \frac{q_1 (Q-q_1)}{r^2}

Solving for q1,

Fr^2=k (q_1 Q-q_1^2})\\kq_1^2 -kQ q_1 +Fr^2 = 0

Since Q=4.37\cdot 10^{-6} C, we can substituting all numbers into the equation:

8.98755\cdot 10^9 q_1^2 -3.93\cdot 10^4 q_1 -0.141 = 0

which gives two solutions:

q_1 = 6.70\cdot 10^{-6} C\\q_2 = -2.34\cdot 10^{-6} C

Which correspond to the values of the two charges. Therefore, the initial charge q1 on the first sphere is

q_1 = +6.70 \mu C

8 0
4 years ago
Two airplanes leave an airport at the same time. The velocity of the first airplane is 730 m/h at a heading of 44.3 ◦ . The velo
Goshia [24]

Answer:

So airplane will be 1324.9453 m apart after 2.9 hour

Explanation:

So if we draw the vectors of a 2d graph we see that the difference in angles is  = 83 - 44.3 = 83-44.3=38.7^{\circ}

Distance traveled by first plane = 730×2.9 = 2117 m

And distance traveled by second plane = 590×2.9 = 1711 m

We represent these distances as two sides of the triangle, and the distance between the planes as the side opposing the angle 38.7.

Using the law of cosine, d^2 representing the distance between the planes, we see that:

d^2=2117^2 + 1711^2 -2\times (2117)\times (1711)cos(38.7)=1755480.2482

d = 1324.9453 m

4 0
3 years ago
What are the wavelengths of electromagnetic wave in free space that have the following frequencies?.
irina [24]

The wavelengths of the light are 4.3 * 10^-12 m and 0.2 m respectively.

<h3>What is wavelength?</h3>

The term wavelength has to do with the horizontal distance that is covered by a wave. We know that a long wavelength implies that the wave is able to travel a long distance from one point to another.

Given that;

c = λf

c = speed of light

λ = wavelength of ight

f = frequency of light

Thus;

λ = 3 * 10^8/ 7.00 x 10^19

λ = 4.3 * 10^-12 m

λ = 3 * 10^8/1.50 x 10^9

λ = 2 * 10^-1 or 0.2 m

Learn more about wavelength:brainly.com/question/13533093

#SPJ1

Missing parts:

What are the wavelengths of electromagnetic wave in free space that have the following frequencies? (a) 7.00 x 10^19 Hz______ pm (b) 1.50 x 10^9 Hz__________ cm

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A 50 n force is acting on a lever 1.5 m from the fulcrum balances an object 1m from the fulcrum on the other arm. what is the we
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

A 100 N force acting on a lever 2 m from the fulcrum balances an object 0.5 m from the fulcrum on. ... What is the weight of the object(in newtons)? What is its mass (in kg)? ... mass at the one end and effort arm is the distance between pivot and effort applied at the other end.

Explanation:

hpoe this helps you.

4 0
3 years ago
Two metal disks, one with radius R1 = 2.45 cm and mass M1 = 0.900 kg and the other with radius R2 = 5.00 cm and mass M2 = 1.60 k
natima [27]

Answer:

part (a) a_1\ =\ 2.9\ kg

Part (b) a_2\ =\ 6.25\ kg

Explanation:

Given,

  • mass of the smaller disk = M_1\ =\ 0.900\ kg
  • Radius of the smaller disk = R_1\ =\ 2.45\ cm\ =\ 0.0245\ m
  • mass of the larger disk = M_2\ =\ 1.6\ kg
  • Radius of the larger disk =R_2\ =\ 5.0\ cm\ =\ 0.05\ m
  • mass of the hanging block = m = 1.60 kg

Let I be the moment of inertia of the both disk after the welding,\therefore I\ =\ I_1\ +\ I_2\\\Rightarrow I\ =\ \dfrac{1}{2}(M_1R_1^2\ +\ M_2R_2^2)\\\Rightarrow I\ =\ 0.5\times (0.9\times 0.0245^2\ +\ 1.6\times 0.05^2)\\\Rightarrow I\ =\ 2.27\times 10^{-3}\ kgm^2

part (a)

A block of mass m is hanging on the smaller disk,

From the f.b.d. of the block,

Let 'a' be the acceleration of the block and 'T' be the tension in the string.

mg\ -\ T\ =\ mg\\\Rightarrow T\ =\ mg\ -\ ma\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,eqn (1)

Net torque on the smaller disk,

\therefore \tau\ =\ I\alpha\\\Rightarrow TR_1\ =\ \dfrac{Ia}{R_1}\\\Rightarrow T\ =\ \dfrac{Ia}{R_1^2}\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,enq (2)

From eqn (1) and (2), we get,

mg\ -\ ma\ =\ \dfrac{Ia}{R_1^2}\\\Rightarrow a\ =\ \dfrac{mg}{\dfrac{I}{R_1^2}\ +\ m}\\\Rightarrow a\ =\ \dfrac{1.60\times 9.81}{\dfrac{2.27\times 10^{-3}}{0.027^2}\ +\ 1.60}\\\Rightarrow a\ =\ 2.91\ m/s^2

part (b)

In this case the mass is rapped on the larger disk,

From the above expression of the acceleration of the block, acceleration is only depended on the radius of the rotating disk,

Let 'a_2' be the acceleration of the block in the second case,

From the above expression,

\therefore a\ =\ \dfrac{mg}{\dfrac{I}{R_1^2}\ +\ m}\\\Rightarrow a\ =\ \dfrac{1.60\times 9.81}{\dfrac{2.27\times 10^{-3}}{0.05^2}\ +\ 1.60}\\\Rightarrow a\ =\ 6.25\ m/s^2

5 0
3 years ago
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