I think it's "Adrienne did not enter her ATM withdrawal correctly". That's my best guess
Answer: 39.29%
Explanation:
For us to calculate the percentage change, we have to deduct the trading for VEF in January from the trading for VEF in February and then divide by VEF trading in January. This will be:
= (1950 - 1400)/1950
= 550/1400
= 0.3929
= 39.29%
The percentage change in January is 39.29%.
Answer:
A. Real options must have positive value becasue they are only exercised when doing so would increase the value of the investment.
B. If exercisung the real option would reduce value, managers ca allow the option to go unexercised.
D, Having the real option but not the obligation to act is valuabale.
Explanation:
Because real option are options or choices made available to managers of a firm concerning investment their choices are meant to bring about a positive growth and return on the investments.
So if any of the choices presented to these managers are going to reduce the values or have other negative impacts on the investment and its value, then the option which is the real option or ideal option canbe forgone.
Cheers.
There is no redemption period if the lender is not pursuing a deficiency judgment.
A judicial foreclosure permits the lender to get a deficiency judgment against the borrower. However, the homeowner has the “proper of redemption,” which lets him or her shop for the home returned from the hit bidder on the auction for 12 months after the sale.
In a judicial foreclosures state, the lender has to report a lawsuit in a courtroom in an effort to foreclose. In a nonjudicial foreclosure nation, the lender can foreclose without going through the court docket system. either way, the very last step within the foreclosure process is a foreclosure sale.
Redemption is a period after your home has already been sold at a foreclosure sale when you may nonetheless reclaim your private home. You may want to pay the high-quality mortgage stability and all fees incurred during the foreclosures system.
Learn more about foreclosures here brainly.com/question/15182362
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Answer:
b) If auditors can demonstrate due diligence.
Explanation:
Under the liability provisions of section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933, auditors may be liable to any purchaser of a security for certifying materially misstated financial statements that are included in the registration statement. Under section 11, auditors usually will not be liable to the purchaser if auditors can demonstrate due diligence.
Section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. § 77k (1988), provides investors with the ability to hold issuers and others liable for any damage incurred and caused by false statements of fact or even material omissions of fact within registration statements as at when effective.
The Securities Act of 1933 was used to regulate the stock market as the first federal legislation. With this act, power was given to the federal government and taken away from the state governments.
Hence, the Securities Act of 1933 is used to protect investors from frauds by creating a set of standard rules.
In conclusion, auditors usually will not be liable to the purchaser if auditors can demonstrate due diligence in their services and responsibilities.
