I believe the answer is b. However I'm not quite sure. I think b would be the most reasonable answer.
Answer:
Explanation:
He should work with the 50,000 hours estimate instead of the 40,000 in order to avoid shortage of funds during the business year
Answer:
B, 195750
Explanation:
Let's first figure out the manufacturing overhead per direct labor hour
175500/13000= 13.5
So we allocate 13.5 in manufacturing overhead per direct labor hour
Let's the mulitply this by the number of actual direct labor hours
14500*13.5=195750
Answer:
The answer is 5.47 percent
Explanation:
Firstly, we find coupon payment (PMT).
it can be gotten from the price (present value) of bond formula:
PV = PMT/(1+r)^1 + PMT/(1+r)^2 ....... PMT + FV/(1+r)^n
N = 10.5 years
1/Y = 6.2 percent
PV = $945
PMT = ?
FV = $1000
Using a Financial calculator to input all the variables above,
Annual PMT = $54.72
Semi annual will be $54.72/2= $27.36
Coupon rate is Annual PMT /par value
= $54.72/1000
0.0547 or 5.47 percent
Answer:
$51. 15
Explanation:
The selling price is $58.82
The mark-up is 15% of the selling price.
The cost price is ???
The $58.82 is 115% of the cost price.
the cost price is 100%
cost price
= 58.82/115 x 100
= $0.5114 X 100
=$51. 15
