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nordsb [41]
3 years ago
7

What is the quotient of 65,610 ÷ 18?

Mathematics
2 answers:
ankoles [38]3 years ago
5 0
The answer to this is 3645
g100num [7]3 years ago
4 0
<span>65,610 divided by 18 would give you answer of is 3645</span>
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A study by Allstate Insurance Co. finds that 82% of teenagers have used cell phones while driving (the Wall Street Journal, May
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The probability that the sample proportion is within ± 0.02 of the population proportion is 0.3328

<h3>How to determine the probability?</h3>

The given parameters are:

  • Sample size, n = 100
  • Population proportion, p = 82%

Start by calculating the mean:

\mu = np

\mu = 100 * 82\%

\mu = 82

Calculate the standard deviation:

\sigma = \sqrt{\mu(1 - p)

\sigma = \sqrt{82 * (1 - 82\%)

\sigma = 3.84

Within ± 0.02 of the population proportion are:

x_{min} = 82 * (1 - 0.02) = 80.38

x_{max} = 82 * (1 + 0.02) = 83.64

Calculate the z-scores at these points using:

z = \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma}

So, we have:

z_1 = \frac{80.36 - 82}{3.84} = -0.43

z_2 = \frac{83.64 - 82}{3.84} = 0.43

The probability is then represented as:

P(x ± 0.02) = P(-0.43 < z < 0.43)

Using the z table of probabilities, we have:

P(x ± 0.02) = 0.3328

Hence, the probability that the sample proportion is within ± 0.02 of the population proportion is 0.3328

Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

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To answer that question we need to use THE RULE OF THREE, this rule will help us solving linear relation problems.

Solution is:

The hour hand will turn (1/36)×π

The Table

Step      minute hand                hour hand

0-5         (1/6)×π                            (1/72)×π

  10        (2/6)×π                           (1/36)×π

  15        (3/6)×π   = π/2                (1/24)×π

  20       (4/6)×π   = (2/3)×π          (1/18)×π

  25       (5/6)×π                           (5/72)×π

  30       (6/6)×π   = π                   (1/12)×π

  35        (7/6)×π                          (7/72)×π

  40        (8/6)×π                          (8/72)×π

  45        (9/6)×π  = (3/2)×π         (3/24)×π

  50        ( 10/6)×π                       ( 10/72)×π

  55        (11/6)×π                          (11/72)×π

  60         (12/6)×π  = 2×π            (12/72)×π    = π/6

  • We know that each complete minute hand turn, is a 2×π angle turn, then a 5 minutes turn is (1/12) × 2×π = (π/6)
  • We will use that relationship to build the table and answer the question

If   2×π  angle for a minute hand turn is equal to 1 hour, then

(2/6) angle for a minute hand turn is equal to  "x" turn in the hour hand

So by Rule of Three, we proceed

2×π         ( Of minute hand)   ⇒    (1/6)×π   (of hour hand)

(2/6)× π   ( Of minute hand)   ⇒        x

Solving for x

2×π × x   = (2/6)× π × (1/6)×π

2× x  =  (2/36)×π

x = (1/36)×π

Now to build the table in 5 minutes steps:

Related Link: brainly.com/question/19586594

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