Answer:
is 200 times larger than 
Step-by-step explanation:

To compare both values we divide the exponents

6 divide by 3 is 2
for simplify exponents we use exponential property
a^m / a^n = a^(m-n)


is 200 times larger than 
You can try them out and see which one works.
a: f(2) = f(1) +6 = 5+6 = 11 . . . . . . not this one
b: f(1) = f(2) -6 = -1-6 = -7 . . . . . . not this one (5 ≠ -7)
c: f(2) = f(1) - 6 = 5 - 6 = -1 . . . . . this gives the right f(2)
d: f(2 = -6(f(1) = -6(5) = -30 . . . . not this one
_____
The appropriate choice is ...
... f(n +1) = f(n) - 6
— — — — —
You can also recognize that the next term is 6 less than the current one, so f(n+1) = f(n) - 6, which corresponds to the 3rd selection.
Answer:
0 because they cancel out :D
Given equation :
.
Strategy 1: We can cross mutiply both sides remove fraction form.
On cross multiplication, we get
x * 7 = 3 * 42
7x = 126.
Dividing both sides by 7, we get
<h3>
x = 18.</h3>
Strategy 2: We can find least common denominator(lcd) of both sides and multiplying both sides by that lcd to get rid denominators from both sides.
LCD of 42 and 7 is 42.
Therefore, multiplying both sides by 42, we get

x = 6 * 3
<h3>x = 18.</h3>
I'm pretty sure you would need to multiply 2/5 by 40.
So, if you multiply 2/5 by 40, you need to turn 40 into a fraction with 1 being the denominator.
2/5 x 40/1 = 80/5
Since the product is an improper fraction, you would simplify it to a whole number.
80/5 = 16.
He can expect to hit it 16 times to get a hole in one.
I hope I am right and have a great day.