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sveta [45]
3 years ago
5

You play two games against the same opponent. The probability you win the first game is 0.4. If you win the first game, the prob

ability you also win the second one is 0.2. If you lose the first game, the probability that you win the second game is 0.3.
a. Are the two games independent?
Explain your answer.
b. What's the probability you lose both games?
c. What's the probability you win both games?
d. Let random variable X be the number of games you win. Find the probability model for X complete the table below (hint: use your answers in part b and c)
X P(x)
0
1
2
e. Find and interpret the expected value of X?
f. What is the standard deviation of X?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a) No

b) 42%

c) 8%

d) X               0                 1                2

   P(X)           42%            50%         8%

e) 0.62

Step-by-step explanation:

a) No, the two games are not independent because the the probability you win the second game is dependent on the probability that you win or lose the second game.

b) P(lose first game) = 1 - P(win first game) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6

P(lose second game) = 1 - P(win second game) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7

P(lose both games) = P(lose first game)  × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%

c)   P(win first game)  = 0.4

P(win second game) = 0.2

P(win both games) = P(win first game)  × P(win second game) = 0.4 × 0.2 = 0.08 = 8%

d) X               0                 1                2

   P(X)           42%            50%         8%

P(X = 0)  =  P(lose both games) = P(lose first game)  × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%

P(X = 1) = [ P(lose first game)  × P(win second game)] + [ P(win first game)  × P(lose second game)] = ( 0.6 × 0.3) + (0.4 × 0.8) = 0.18 + 0.32 = 0.5 = 50%

e) The expected value  \mu=\Sigma}xP(x)= (0*0.42)+(1*0.5)+(2*0.08)=0.66

f) Variance \sigma^2=\Sigma(x-\mu^2)p(x)= (0-0.66)^2*0.42+ (1-0.66)^2*0.5+ (2-0.66)^2*0.08=0.3844

Standard deviation \sigma=\sqrt{variance} = \sqrt{0.3844}=0.62

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Using the Empirical Rule and the Central Limit Theorem, we have that:

  • About 68% of the sample mean fall with in the intervals $1.64 and $1.82.
  • About 99.7% of the sample mean fall with in the intervals $1.46 and $2.

<h3>What does the Empirical Rule state?</h3>

It states that, for a normally distributed random variable:

  • Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
  • Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of  the mean.
  • Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

<h3>What does the Central Limit Theorem state?</h3>

By the Central Limit Theorem, the sampling distribution of sample means of size n has standard deviation s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}.

In this problem, the standard deviation of the distribution of sample means is:

s = \frac{0.657}{\sqrt{50}} = 0.09

68% of the means are within 1 standard deviation of the mean, hence the bounds are:

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More can be learned about the Empirical Rule at brainly.com/question/24537145

#SPJ1

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